ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the primary goal of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in a cardiac arrest situation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of CPR is to restore spontaneous circulation and oxygenation to the body to maintain vital organ function. By performing chest compressions and rescue breaths, CPR aims to circulate oxygenated blood to the brain and other vital organs. This is crucial to prevent brain damage and increase the chances of survival. The other choices are incorrect because CPR does not address the underlying cause of cardiac arrest (A), provide pain relief (C), or prevent further complications such as organ failure (D). The immediate focus in a cardiac arrest situation is to maintain blood flow and oxygen delivery to vital organs until advanced medical care can be provided.
Question 2 of 9
In her recommendation, Nurse Gina stated, elderly should be given independence. This means ________.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because independence for the elderly means they have the freedom to make choices and decisions about their own lives. This empowers them to live according to their preferences and values. Choice A is incorrect because it doesn't consider individual circumstances; choice B is important but doesn't capture the essence of independence; choice D is too broad and doesn't specifically address the concept of personal autonomy and agency for the elderly.
Question 3 of 9
The physician ordered to start Ms. Mely on Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN). What Is your INITIAL step to be undertaken PRIOR to this intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct initial step before starting TPN is to evaluate the patient's tolerance to glucose. This is crucial to ensure the patient can metabolize the glucose effectively and avoid complications such as hyperglycemia. Assessing affordability (A) is important but not the immediate concern. Identifying allergies (C) should be done but is not the first step. Assessing the patient's understanding (D) is important but not as critical as evaluating glucose tolerance before starting TPN.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following directly VIOLATES the Patient's Bill of Rights?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because disclosing a patient's HIV status to family members violates the patient's right to privacy and confidentiality. Patient confidentiality is a fundamental aspect of the Patient's Bill of Rights, ensuring that personal health information is protected. The other choices (A, C, D) do not directly violate the Patient's Bill of Rights. Choice A relates to transparency in billing, choice C is about honesty in communication, and choice D is about timely communication with the physician, all of which are in line with patient rights and quality care.
Question 5 of 9
Sensitivity is the ability of a screening test to accurately identify what aspect of the screening?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Persons who have the disease. Sensitivity measures how well a test correctly identifies individuals who have the disease (true positives). It is essential in determining the test's ability to detect the presence of the disease accurately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sensitivity focuses on correctly identifying individuals who have the disease, not those with symptoms, those without the disease, or those with a diagnosis of the disease.
Question 6 of 9
To assist them enhance their performance at work, the nurse manager should review regularly pertaining to the staff's
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Job description is crucial for clarifying roles and responsibilities, ensuring staff understand their duties. Step 2: Regular review of job descriptions helps align staff performance with organizational goals and expectations. Step 3: It allows for identifying areas of improvement and providing necessary support and resources. Step 4: Academic performance in college, family dynamics, and number of incident reports are not directly related to work performance. Summary: Regularly reviewing staff job descriptions is essential for enhancing performance by clarifying roles, aligning expectations, and identifying areas for improvement. Other choices lack direct relevance to work performance.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix) for secondary prevention of thrombotic events. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor closely during clopidogrel therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Platelet count. Platelet count should be monitored closely during clopidogrel therapy because it works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of clot formation. Monitoring platelet count helps assess the drug's effectiveness and prevent potential complications like bleeding or clotting events. Prothrombin time (A), activated partial thromboplastin time (B), and international normalized ratio (D) are tests that primarily assess the coagulation factors and are not directly affected by clopidogrel therapy, making them less relevant for monitoring this specific medication.
Question 8 of 9
Latex allergy can be a type I IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity to plant proteins from the latex of rubber. It can manifest in its MOST severe form as _____.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is the MOST severe form of an allergic reaction, including latex allergy. It is a systemic, potentially life-threatening reaction that can involve multiple organ systems. Symptoms can include difficulty breathing, swelling of the throat, a rapid drop in blood pressure, and cardiovascular collapse. Pruritus, erythema, and swelling (choice A) are common symptoms of allergic reactions but not specific to anaphylaxis. Asthma (choice B) can be a manifestation of latex allergy but is not the most severe form. Blisters and other skin lesions (choice D) are not typical of anaphylaxis but can occur in some cases of contact dermatitis from latex exposure.
Question 9 of 9
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage cancer experiences intractable pain despite receiving opioid medications. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's pain?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because referring the patient to a pain management specialist for evaluation is essential in this scenario. The specialist can conduct a comprehensive assessment to identify the underlying causes of the intractable pain and recommend a tailored pain management plan. This approach ensures a multidisciplinary approach to address the complex nature of the patient's pain. Choice A is incorrect because simply increasing the dosage of the current opioid medication may not effectively address the underlying cause of the pain and can lead to potential side effects or opioid tolerance. Choice B is incorrect as switching to a different opioid medication without a thorough evaluation may not guarantee better pain control and can increase the risk of adverse effects or inadequate pain relief. Choice C is incorrect as administering adjuvant analgesic medications without addressing the root cause of the pain may not provide adequate pain relief and does not address the need for a specialized pain management plan.