ATI RN
hesi health assessment test bank 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the primary goal for a client with newly diagnosed diabetes?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal for a client with newly diagnosed diabetes is to monitor their blood glucose levels (Answer B). This is essential to understand how their body responds to different foods, activities, and medications. Monitoring blood glucose levels helps in determining the effectiveness of the treatment plan and making necessary adjustments. Teaching the client how to manage their blood glucose levels (Answer A) is important, but monitoring comes first. Monitoring urine output (Answer C) is not as relevant for diabetes management. Administering insulin (Answer D) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the primary goal initially.
Question 2 of 9
What is the first priority for a client with chest pain and a history of myocardial infarction?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer corticosteroids. In a client with chest pain and a history of myocardial infarction, the first priority is to address potential inflammation in the myocardium. Corticosteroids help reduce inflammation and stabilize the myocardium, which is crucial in preventing further damage post-myocardial infarction. Administering nitroglycerin (A) is important for vasodilation, but it is typically used after corticosteroids. Morphine (B) and analgesics (C) may provide pain relief but do not address the underlying inflammation. Administering corticosteroids is the most appropriate first step to manage myocardial inflammation and protect the heart tissue.
Question 3 of 9
A female patient does not speak English well, and the nurse needs to choose an interpreter. Which of the following would be the most appropriate choice?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A trained interpreter. Choosing a trained interpreter ensures accurate communication and confidentiality. Professional interpreters have the necessary language skills and cultural competence to facilitate effective communication between the healthcare provider and the patient. Using a family member (choices B and C) may compromise confidentiality and accuracy due to potential bias or lack of professional training. Similarly, selecting a volunteer university student (choice D) may result in misinterpretation or breach of privacy as they may not have the same level of expertise as a trained interpreter. Ultimately, the most appropriate choice is a trained interpreter to ensure clear and accurate communication while respecting the patient's privacy and dignity.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD). The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. In CKD, the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete potassium, leading to its accumulation in the blood. This can result in dangerous cardiac complications. Hyperkalemia is a common and critical complication in CKD patients. B: Hypokalemia is unlikely in CKD as the kidneys typically retain potassium. C: Hyperglycemia is more commonly associated with diabetes rather than CKD. D: Hypercalcemia is not a common complication of CKD; in fact, CKD often leads to lower calcium levels due to impaired activation of vitamin D.
Question 5 of 9
A patient asks the nurse, "Why do I have to stop smoking before my surgery?" What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Smoking increases the risk of complications during surgery." Smoking constricts blood vessels, reduces oxygen levels, and impairs the body's ability to heal. This can lead to increased risks of infections, delayed wound healing, and other complications during and after surgery. Choice B is vague and does not address the specific risks associated with smoking. Choice C is too general and does not emphasize the immediate risks related to surgery. Choice D implies a benefit after surgery rather than focusing on the risks associated with smoking before surgery.
Question 6 of 9
What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with advanced Parkinson's disease and gait issues?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with advanced Parkinson's disease and gait issues is "A: Impaired Physical Mobility." This diagnosis accurately reflects the client's limited ability to move due to the disease's impact on coordination and muscle control. Impaired Physical Mobility addresses the specific issue of gait problems commonly seen in Parkinson's patients. Choice B, "Impaired Role Performance," does not directly address the physical limitations caused by the disease. Choice C, "Ineffective Role Performance," focuses more on the client's inability to fulfill societal roles rather than the physical aspect of gait issues. Choice D, "Powerlessness," does not capture the primary concern of impaired movement and mobility in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse would plan to use the Nipissing District Developmental Screen with a child who is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (3 years old) because the Nipissing District Developmental Screen is specifically designed for children aged 1 month to 6 years to assess their developmental milestones. It focuses on various areas of development appropriate for this age group, such as motor skills, language, social interaction, and cognitive abilities. Using this tool with a 3-year-old child allows for early identification of potential developmental delays or concerns. Incorrect choices: B (16 years old) - The Nipissing District Developmental Screen is not intended for children above 6 years old. C (8 years old with a developmental delay) - The tool is primarily for early screening, not for children already identified with developmental delays. D (Having difficulty with gross motor skills) - While this child may benefit from assessment, the Nipissing Screen is a comprehensive tool for overall development, not just specific skill deficits.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is assessing a patient with a history of smoking. The patient reports a persistent cough that has worsened over the past few months. The nurse would be most concerned about the possibility of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The patient's history of smoking, persistent cough, and worsening symptoms over months are indicative of COPD, a progressive lung disease commonly caused by smoking. Asthma (A) typically presents with intermittent symptoms, bronchitis (C) may cause cough but not necessarily worsening over time, and pulmonary embolism (D) is characterized by sudden onset symptoms and is less likely in this case. COPD is the most concerning due to the patient's smoking history and progressive symptoms.
Question 9 of 9
Which medication should be given to treat anemia in clients with renal failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A (Iron, folic acid, and B12) Rationale: 1. Iron: Renal failure patients often have anemia due to decreased erythropoietin production. 2. Folic acid and B12: Important for red blood cell production and maturation. 3. Corrects underlying causes of anemia in renal failure patients. Summary: B: Increasing protein doesn't directly address anemia in renal failure. C: Vitamin D and calcium are not primary treatments for anemia in renal failure. D: Calcium and folic acid alone do not address the specific deficiencies seen in renal failure anemia.