What is the primary function of bacterial ribosomes?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Synthesize proteins. Bacterial ribosomes are responsible for translating mRNA into proteins through a process called translation. Ribosomes do not generate ATP (choice B), produce DNA (choice C), or synthesize lipids (choice D). These processes are carried out by other cellular components such as mitochondria for ATP production, DNA polymerase for DNA replication, and enzymes for lipid synthesis. The primary function of bacterial ribosomes is protein synthesis, making choice A the correct answer.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Macrolides or fluoroquinolones. Legionella pneumophila is a bacterium that causes Legionnaires' disease, a severe form of pneumonia. Macrolides (like azithromycin) and fluoroquinolones (like levofloxacin) are the recommended first-line treatments due to their ability to penetrate into lung tissues where Legionella infects. Penicillins and cephalosporins (choice A) are not effective against Legionella as it is intracellular and resistant to these antibiotics. Ethambutol and isoniazid (choice B) are used to treat tuberculosis, not Legionella infections. Second and third generation cephalosporins (choice D) are also not effective against Legionella. Therefore, the best choice for treating Legionella pneumophila infections is macrolides or fluoroquinolones.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vibrio cholerae. Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae, a gram-negative bacterium that produces a toxin leading to severe watery diarrhea. Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, not cholera. Salmonella enterica causes salmonellosis, not cholera. Clostridium perfringens is associated with food poisoning, not cholera. In summary, Vibrio cholerae is the correct answer because it is the specific bacterium known to cause cholera, while the other choices are associated with different diseases.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: ELISA test for IgM anti-HAV in serum and HAV-Ag in stools. This test is the most reliable for detecting acute hepatitis A infection because IgM antibodies are produced early in the infection, indicating an active infection. Detection of HAV antigen in stools also confirms active viral shedding. A: Western blot assay for IgG anti-HAV in serum is not the most reliable for acute infection detection as IgG antibodies are produced later in the infection and indicate past exposure or immunity. C: ELISA test for IgG anti-HAV in serum is not the most reliable for acute infection detection as IgG antibodies are produced later in the infection and indicate past exposure or immunity. D: None of the above is incorrect as option B is the most appropriate choice for detecting acute hepatitis A infection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is A: Malaria. The patient's symptoms of periodic chills, high fever, and profuse sweating, along with living in Africa where malaria is endemic, strongly suggest malaria. The enlarged liver and spleen are consistent with malaria infection. The low erythrocyte count indicates hemolysis, a common feature of malaria. Spotted fever and sepsis do not typically present with the same pattern of symptoms and travel history as seen in this case. Haemolytic anaemia would not explain the patient's fever episodes and other symptoms. Therefore, based on the symptoms, travel history, and laboratory findings, malaria is the most likely diagnosis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The normal microflora plays a crucial role in defending against pathogens in the skin and mucus. This is because the skin and mucus act as physical barriers and the normal microflora outcompetes potential pathogens, preventing their colonization. In contrast, the circulatory system (A), hepatobiliary tract (B), and CNS (D) are not typically colonized by normal microflora, so they do not directly contribute to defense against pathogens in those areas.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacterial DNA. PCR analysis detects specific DNA sequences, so a positive result for H. pylori indicates the presence of the bacterial DNA in the gastric biopsy specimen. This method identifies the genetic material of the bacterium, not the bacterium itself (choice C) or its toxins (choice B). Additionally, PCR does not directly detect bacterial enzymes (choice D) but rather focuses on genetic material for accurate identification. Therefore, in this case, the detection of H. pylori in the PCR analysis points to the presence of bacterial DNA, confirming the etiology of peptic ulcer disease.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fibers at the vertices of the icosahedron. Adenoviruses have fibers at the vertices of the icosahedron, which give them their distinctive pattern. These fibers help in attaching to host cells. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because adenoviruses do not have a lipid envelope, helical capsid, or ssDNA. Adenoviruses have a non-enveloped icosahedral capsid and contain dsDNA. This makes choice D the correct answer as it specifically relates to the unique structural feature of adenoviruses.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Clostridium botulinum produces botulinum toxin causing botulism, Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin leading to severe diarrhea, and certain strains of Escherichia coli produce toxins causing gastrointestinal illness. Therefore, all three bacteria are known for producing toxins that can cause severe gastrointestinal illness. Choices A, B, and C individually represent bacteria known for producing toxins that can cause severe gastrointestinal illness, making them incorrect individual choices.