ATI RN
Contemporary Issues in Nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the primary factor that characterizes a patient receiving palliative care
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the primary factor that characterizes a patient receiving palliative care is a diagnosis of a serious, life-threatening disease. Palliative care focuses on providing relief from the symptoms and stress of a serious illness, regardless of the stage of the disease or the prognosis. This means that palliative care can be appropriate for patients with a variety of life expectancies, not just those with less than 12 months to live. Choices B and C are incorrect because while they are important factors in healthcare decision-making, they are not the primary factor that characterizes a patient receiving palliative care. Choice D is also incorrect because palliative care can be provided to patients with various life expectancies, not just those with less than 12 months to live.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse moves from California to Arkansas and due to having 20 years of experience as a registered nurse is immediately placed in charge of the telemetry unit. The staffing consists of LPNs and two unlicensed assistive personnel. The RN is unsure of the scope of practice of the LPNs and reviews the nurse practice act for Arkansas, which lacks clarity on some tasks. The RN should:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: contact the state board of nursing to determine legal scope of practice for LPNs. This is the most appropriate action because the state board of nursing is the authoritative body that governs nursing practice within a specific state. By contacting the board, the RN can get accurate and up-to-date information on the legal scope of practice for LPNs in Arkansas. This ensures compliance with state regulations and avoids any potential legal issues. A: Querying the state nursing association may provide some insight, but the state board of nursing is the official entity that regulates nursing practice. B: Asking the LPNs about their tasks may not provide a comprehensive understanding of their legal scope of practice and could lead to misunderstandings. D: Referring to California's nurse practice act is irrelevant as each state has its own regulations, and assuming consistency across states can lead to incorrect assumptions.
Question 3 of 9
A new graduate nurse is preparing for an interview for her first position and knows that: (select all that apply)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the primary goal for a new graduate nurse in their first job is to successfully complete the orientation process. This is crucial for transitioning from the academic setting to the professional nursing environment. Completing orientation ensures that the nurse is equipped with the necessary knowledge and skills to provide safe and effective patient care. Choice B is incorrect because scheduling interviews immediately after graduation may not allow the nurse enough time to prepare adequately for the interview process. Choice C is incorrect because while self-confidence is important, relying solely on past achievements of peers may not be a sustainable source of confidence in a new work environment. Choice D is incorrect because while work history and letters of recommendation can be valuable, they may not necessarily be the primary focus during the initial stages of a new nurse's career.
Question 4 of 9
A novice nurse is unsure of his ability to insert a nasogastric tube for one of the assigned patients who is vomiting coffee ground emesis. The novice nurse waits, hoping that someone with more experience will volunteer to do the job, or he just waits until the end of the shift. This nurse is practicing:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: procrastination. Procrastination is the act of delaying or avoiding a task that needs to be accomplished. In this scenario, the novice nurse is avoiding the task of inserting a nasogastric tube for a patient who needs it due to uncertainty and fear. Waiting for someone else to volunteer or delaying the task until the end of the shift are clear examples of procrastination. Energy management (A) involves efficiently allocating time and resources, which is not demonstrated here. Priority setting (B) would involve recognizing the urgency of the situation and taking appropriate action. Introspection (D) refers to self-reflection and analyzing one's thoughts and feelings, which is not the primary issue at hand in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse who is participating in a health fair asks, "Other than nursing, what are some opportunities for careers in the health care professions, and what education is required?" The nurse informs participants that a baccalaureate degree is required as the minimum standard for the role of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: nurse anesthetist. Nurse anesthetists require a minimum of a baccalaureate degree in nursing as a prerequisite for their advanced practice role. They then need to complete a master's or doctoral program in nurse anesthesia. This advanced education and training enable nurse anesthetists to provide anesthesia care in various healthcare settings. Incorrect answers: A: Speech therapists require a master's degree in speech-language pathology. B: Occupational therapists require a master's degree in occupational therapy. C: Nurse-midwives require a master's degree in nurse-midwifery or a related field. In summary, the minimum education requirement of a baccalaureate degree aligns with the role of a nurse anesthetist, making choice D the correct answer.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse hopes to improve time management skills using the ABC prioritization approach. Which tasks would be prioritized as "B"? (select all that apply)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because reviewing the dress code policy to give feedback before an appointment in the morning is time-sensitive and directly impacts the nurse's professional responsibilities. This task falls under the "B" category in the ABC prioritization approach, which prioritizes tasks that are important but not urgent. This task requires attention before the morning appointment to ensure professionalism and compliance. Tasks A, C, and D are not prioritized as "B" because they are either more urgent or less important compared to reviewing the dress code policy before the morning appointment. Task A is important but not urgent as the time sheet is not due immediately. Task C is categorized as "A" as it involves a critical patient situation that requires immediate attention. Task D is categorized as "C" as it is important and time-sensitive, needing completion before discharge in 2 hours.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is very interested in learning more about health care economics and how she can use that knowledge to become a better patient advocate. She comments, "Nurses should not only deliver care one day at a time in one facility but should coordinate patient care as they move from acute care to rehabilitation to home care." This nurse would be a candidate for which nursing role?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. The nurse's interest in coordinating patient care across different settings aligns with the role of a case manager. 2. Case managers focus on ensuring continuity of care and coordinating services for patients transitioning between different healthcare settings. 3. This role involves advocating for patients' needs and optimizing their health outcomes through seamless care transitions. Summary: A: DMP focuses on managing chronic illnesses, not coordinating care across settings. B: Utilization management nurses focus on determining appropriate reimbursement levels, not on care coordination. D: Reviewers for Managed Care Organizations focus on assessing medical necessity and cost-effectiveness, not on care coordination.
Question 8 of 9
The number of reported medical errors demonstrates a need for what priority intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Simulation experiences. This intervention allows healthcare professionals to practice real-life scenarios in a controlled environment, improving skills and decision-making. It helps identify and address potential errors before they occur, enhancing patient safety. Other choices lack the hands-on, practical approach of simulations and may not adequately prepare professionals for real-world situations. Simulation experiences are crucial for enhancing clinical competence and reducing medical errors.
Question 9 of 9
"A patient with end-stage renal disease has a potassium level of 5 mEq/L. Based on this laboratory result, the nurse interprets which symptom as significant prompting which action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer C: Irregular heartbeat is a significant symptom of hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening. The nurse should evaluate capillary refill to assess perfusion. High potassium levels can affect cardiac function, leading to arrhythmias. Monitoring capillary refill provides insight into tissue perfusion, helping to assess the severity of the condition and guide appropriate interventions. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Drowsiness is not a typical symptom of hyperkalemia. Stimulating the patient every 30 minutes does not address the underlying issue. B: Confusion is not a common symptom of hyperkalemia. Asking the patient to state their name and birthdate does not address the cardiac implications of high potassium levels. D: Muscle cramps may occur with hyperkalemia but are not as critical as irregular heartbeat. Elevating the affected limb is not the priority in this situation.