What is the primary concern for a patient with a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm³?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm³ indicates a severely immunocompromised state, leading to an increased risk of severe infection. In individuals with low CD4 counts, the immune system is significantly weakened, making them more susceptible to opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), bleeding (choice C), and dehydration (choice D) are not the primary concerns associated with a low CD4 T-cell count. While these conditions may occur as secondary effects or complications, the primary focus is on preventing and managing severe infections in patients with severely compromised immune systems.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: During enema administration, if a patient experiences abdominal cramping, the priority action is to lower the height of the solution container. This adjustment can help relieve abdominal cramping by reducing the flow rate of the enema, making it more comfortable for the patient. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) can exacerbate the cramping. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice C) may be necessary in some cases of severe discomfort or complications, but adjusting the height of the solution container should be the initial response. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice D) may not address the immediate need to alleviate the cramping.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. This is the priority action for a patient admitted with chest pain from acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, and relieve chest pain. Checking the patient's urine output (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) may not be necessary unless indicated by the patient's condition. Obtaining cardiac enzymes (Choice D) is important but is not the initial action needed to address the patient's acute symptoms.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on the ECG. Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Choice B, Elevated ST segments, is not typically seen in hypokalemia but can be a sign of myocardial infarction. Choice C, Widened QRS complex, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia. Choice D, Prominent U waves, is typically associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are considered a more specific and early sign.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in serum potassium levels, which can lead to various ECG changes. One of the classic ECG findings associated with hypokalemia is the presence of flattened T waves. These T wave abnormalities are typically seen in multiple leads. Choice B, elevated ST segments, is not a typical ECG finding in hypokalemia. Choice C, widened QRS complexes, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia. Choice D is redundant and not a standard way of describing ECG findings.