ATI RN
ATI Proctored Exam Pharmacology Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the pharmacological action of metformin?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Metformin is a first-line medication for the treatment of type 2 diabetes. Its primary pharmacological action is to decrease hepatic glucose production by inhibiting gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis in the liver. This helps to lower blood glucose levels. Metformin also increases insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues like muscle and fat, allowing tissues to better respond to insulin and take up glucose from the blood. This dual mechanism of action makes metformin an effective medication for managing blood glucose levels in patients with type 2 diabetes.
Question 2 of 5
Ester group of local anesthesia differs from the amide group in that :
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The main difference between ester group local anesthetics and amide group local anesthetics lies in the way they are metabolized in the body. Esters are metabolized in the plasma by the enzyme pseudocholinesterase, while amides are metabolized in the liver. Pseudocholinesterase hydrolyzes esters into inactive metabolites, which are then excreted mainly by the kidneys. On the other hand, amides undergo hepatic metabolism by the cytochrome P450 enzyme system before being excreted by the kidneys. This key metabolic difference between esters and amides impacts their pharmacokinetics, including onset of action, duration of effect, and potential for allergic reactions.
Question 3 of 5
The following are H1 receptor antagonist, except :
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Terfenadine is a second-generation antihistamine, but it is not an H1 receptor antagonist like the other options listed. Terfenadine was once used for the treatment of allergic conditions, but it is known for its potential to cause cardiac side effects due to its interaction with other medications and prolongation of the QT interval. Consequently, terfenadine has been largely replaced by newer, safer antihistamines. The rest of the options listed (chlorpheniramine, promethazine, cimetidine, and diphenhydramine) are all H1 receptor antagonists commonly used to block the action of histamine and relieve symptoms of allergies.
Question 4 of 5
A patient who is taking aspirin for arthritis pain asks the nurse why it also causes gastrointestinal upset. The nurse understands that this is because aspirin:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Aspirin causes gastrointestinal upset because it inhibits both cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) and cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) enzymes. These enzymes are responsible for the production of prostaglandins, which are important in protecting the stomach lining. Inhibition of COX-1 reduces the production of protective prostaglandins that help maintain the integrity of the stomach lining, leading to irritation and potential damage, which can manifest as gastrointestinal upset. This is why patients taking aspirin may experience gastrointestinal side effects such as stomach pain, ulcers, or bleeding.
Question 5 of 5
Bisoprolol (Zebeta) would be the drug of choice for which patient with a diagnosis of hypertension?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bisoprolol is the drug of choice for older adults. It is not associated with as many adverse effects in the elderly and regular dosing profiles can be used. This drug does not have an established pediatric dosage. Although the 37-year-old patient is an adult, there are additional choices for this patient, with a more favorable adverse effect profile. The nurse should consider age-related factors when selecting antihypertensive medications.