ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the nurse’s priority intervention when a terminally ill patient reports severe breakthrough pain?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer a prescribed PRN opioid analgesic. This is the priority intervention because severe breakthrough pain requires immediate relief, and opioids are the most effective for managing severe pain in terminally ill patients. Warm compresses (A) may provide some comfort but do not address the underlying pain. Reassessing pain after 2 hours (C) delays necessary relief. Distraction techniques (D) are not appropriate for severe breakthrough pain as they do not directly address the pain itself. Administering the prescribed opioid analgesic promptly is crucial for providing timely and effective pain management in this situation.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is counseling a family about end-of-life care for their loved one. Which statement by the family indicates understanding of palliative care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because palliative care indeed focuses on providing relief from pain and other symptoms, enhancing quality of life for patients with serious illnesses. This aligns with the essence of palliative care, which is to provide holistic support to improve comfort and well-being. The other choices are incorrect: B is wrong because palliative care does not aim to cure the underlying disease but rather to alleviate suffering; C is incorrect as palliative care can be initiated earlier in the disease trajectory, not just during the final days; and D is inaccurate because patients can continue receiving treatments alongside palliative care to manage symptoms and improve their quality of life.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is assessing the patient’s pain using the Critical Care Pain Observation Tool (CPOT). Which of the following assessments would indicate the greatest likelihood of pain and need for nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fighting the ventilator. This behavior indicates the patient is experiencing discomfort and struggling against the ventilator, suggesting a high likelihood of pain. The CPOT assesses pain through behaviors like grimacing, vocalization, and muscle tension, which are all present when a patient is fighting the ventilator. Absence of vocal sounds (Choice A) does not necessarily indicate pain as some patients may be silent even when in pain. Moving legs in bed (Choice C) could be due to restlessness rather than pain. Relaxed muscles in upper extremities (Choice D) do not reflect pain as the CPOT focuses on behaviors indicating discomfort.
Question 4 of 9
The critical care environment is stressful to the patient. Which interventions assist in reducing this stress? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Adjust lighting to promote normal sleep-wake cycles. Rationale: 1. Adjusting lighting can help regulate the patient's circadian rhythm, promoting better sleep and reducing stress. 2. Normal sleep-wake cycles are crucial for overall well-being and healing in a critical care setting. 3. Proper lighting can also create a more calming environment for the patient. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B. Providing clocks, calendars, and personal photos can be overwhelming for a stressed patient. C. Talking about other patients may increase anxiety and breach patient confidentiality. D. Telling the day and time of routine interventions may disrupt the patient's sense of time and add to stress.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse has identified an increase in medication errors in the critical care unit over the past several months. What aspect of medication procedures should be evaluated first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Adherence to procedures by nursing staff. This should be evaluated first because medication errors are often caused by human factors such as staff not following proper procedures. By assessing adherence, the root cause of errors can be identified and addressed. Choice B: Clarity of interdisciplinary communication may contribute to errors but doesn't directly address staff adherence to procedures. Choice C: Number of new employees could be a factor, but focusing on adherence to procedures is more crucial. Choice D: Changes in administration procedures may impact errors, but evaluating staff adherence is more immediate and directly related to errors.
Question 6 of 9
The critical care unit environment is very stressful for patients, families, and staff. What nursing action is directed at reducing environmental stress?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Maintaining quiet during hours of sleep. This action is essential in reducing environmental stress in the critical care unit as it promotes a restful environment for patients and allows for better sleep quality. Noise can disrupt sleep patterns and increase stress levels. Constant evaluation of patient status (A) is important but does not directly address environmental stress. Limiting visits to immediate family (B) can be beneficial in some cases but may not always reduce environmental stress. Bathing all patients during hours of sleep (C) may actually increase stress as it can be disruptive and uncomfortable for patients. Overall, maintaining a quiet environment during sleep hours is the most effective nursing action to reduce environmental stress in the critical care unit.
Question 7 of 9
A 65-year-old patient admitted to the progressive care unit with a diagnosis of community-acquired pneumonia, has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and diabetes. A set of arterial blood gases obtained on admissiaobnir bw.coitmh/oteustt supplemental oxygen shows pH 7.35; PaCO 55 mm Hg; bicarbonate 30 mEq/L ; PaO 65 mm Hg. These blood 2 2 gases reflect what condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoxemia and compensated respiratory acidosis. The patient's pH is within normal range (7.35), indicating compensation. The elevated PaCO2 (55 mm Hg) indicates respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation, likely from COPD. The low PaO2 (65 mm Hg) indicates hypoxemia, common in pneumonia. The normal bicarbonate level (30 mEq/L) suggests metabolic compensation for respiratory acidosis. Choice A is incorrect as there is no metabolic alkalosis present. Choice C is incorrect as the patient has hypoxemia. Choice D is incorrect as the patient is showing compensated respiratory acidosis, not uncompensated.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is using presence to reduce the anxiety of a critically ill patient. What nursing behavior demonstrates an effective use of presence?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because maintaining eye contact with the patient during explanations is a non-verbal way to show attentiveness and empathy, which can help reduce the patient's anxiety. This behavior demonstrates active listening and engagement, making the patient feel heard and understood. A: Staying in the patient's room to complete documentation is not an effective use of presence as it does not involve direct interaction with the patient. B: Having a conversation in the patient's room that excludes the patient is also not an effective use of presence as it does not involve engaging with the patient. D: Focusing on specific nursing care tasks while in the patient's room, although important, may not necessarily demonstrate presence in reducing the patient's anxiety.
Question 9 of 9
A patient who is undergoing withdrawal of mechanical ventilation appears anxious and agitated. The patient is on a continuous morphine infusion and has an additional order for lorazepam 1 to 2 mg IV as needed (prn). The patient has received no lorazepam during this course of illness. What is the most appropriate nursing intearbvirbe.ncotmio/tnes tt o control agitation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct: 1. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine used for sedation and anxiolysis. 2. It acts quickly and has a short duration of action, suitable for acute agitation. 3. Lorazepam (also a benzodiazepine) is in the same drug class, ensuring compatibility. 4. Lorazepam is specifically ordered for this patient, indicating its appropriateness. 5. Administering midazolam addresses the patient's agitation efficiently and safely. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: A: Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic, not ideal for managing agitation. C: Increasing morphine infusion can exacerbate sedation or respiratory depression. D: Paralytic agents are used for neuromuscular blockade, not agitation control.