Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ADPIE Nursing Process Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

What is the most important postoperative instruction the nurse must give a client who has just returned from the operating room after receiving a subarachnoid block?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: “Remain supine for the time specified by the physician.” After a subarachnoid block, the client must remain lying down to prevent complications like spinal headaches due to cerebrospinal fluid leakage. This position helps maintain adequate spinal fluid pressure. Choice A is incorrect as fluid intake is important postoperatively. Choice B is not relevant to a subarachnoid block. Choice C is important but not the most crucial instruction compared to maintaining the supine position.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following symptoms most likely indicates that an infusion is infiltrated?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Puffiness at the site. This indicates infiltration of the infusion, where the medication or fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue instead of entering the bloodstream. Puffiness is a sign of fluid accumulation due to the infiltration. Redness at the site (A) may indicate infection, pain (B) can be due to various reasons, and exudate (D) may suggest infection or irritation, but they are not specific to infiltration. Infiltration assessment involves checking for swelling, coolness, and blanching around the infusion site.

Question 3 of 5

The ff are the tonometer measurements of five clients. Which of them has normal intraocular pressure (IOP)? Choose all that apply

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The normal range for intraocular pressure (IOP) is approximately 10-21 mm Hg. Choice C has an IOP of 11 mm Hg, falling within this normal range, making it the correct answer. Choices A, B, and D are outside the normal range, with A being too low and B and D being too high, indicating abnormal IOP levels. Choice A (8 mm Hg) is below the normal range, while choices B (25 mm Hg) and D (28 mm Hg) are above the normal range, therefore, they are incorrect answers.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following statements about fluid replacement is accurate for a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS)?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer 6L of IV fluid over the first 24 hours. In HHNS, dehydration is severe due to high blood glucose levels causing osmotic diuresis. Rapid infusion of fluid can lead to fluid overload and exacerbate the situation. Administering 6L over 24 hours helps gradually replenish lost fluids without causing circulatory overload. Choice A is incorrect because rapid infusion can lead to fluid overload. Choice C is incorrect because adding dextrose to the solution can further increase blood glucose levels. Choice D is incorrect because administering IV fluids slowly can delay rehydration in a critical situation like HHNS.

Question 5 of 5

Which diagnosis will the nurse document in a patient’s care plan that is NANDA-I approved?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pain. The NANDA-I (North American Nursing Diagnosis Association International) approved diagnosis must meet specific criteria related to patient assessment data, defining characteristics, and related factors. Acute pain is a well-defined nursing diagnosis with specific defining characteristics and related factors, making it a suitable and approved option for inclusion in a patient's care plan. Sore throat, sleep apnea, and heart failure do not meet the criteria for a NANDA-I approved diagnosis as they lack the specificity and comprehensive assessment data required for a nursing diagnosis.

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