ATI RN
health assessment test bank jarvis Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the most important intervention when caring for a client with suspected pneumonia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer IV antibiotics. Administering IV antibiotics is crucial in treating pneumonia as it helps combat the underlying bacterial infection causing pneumonia. Prompt antibiotic therapy can prevent complications and improve patient outcomes. Administering pain medications (B) may help manage symptoms but does not address the root cause. Administering antiemetics (C) may help with nausea and vomiting but does not directly treat pneumonia. Option D is similar to the correct answer but lacks the specificity of IV antibiotics, which are often preferred for severe cases.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of heart failure. The nurse should monitor for which of the following signs of fluid overload?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Swelling in the legs and shortness of breath. In heart failure, the heart is unable to pump effectively, leading to fluid accumulation in the body. Swelling in the legs (edema) is a classic sign of fluid overload as the fluid pools in the lower extremities. Shortness of breath occurs due to fluid accumulating in the lungs, causing difficulty in breathing. Weight loss and increased appetite (A) are not typical signs of fluid overload. Increased urine output and dehydration (B) are more indicative of fluid deficit. Nausea and vomiting (D) can occur in various conditions but are not specific to fluid overload in heart failure.
Question 3 of 9
Which disease is least likely to be associated with increased potential for bleeding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, leading to impaired red blood cell production but does not directly affect clotting factors. Metastatic liver cancer (A) can cause liver dysfunction and decreased production of clotting factors, increasing bleeding risk. Gram-negative septicemia (B) can lead to disseminated intravascular coagulation and excessive bleeding. Iron-deficiency anemia (D) can result in microcytic red blood cells and decreased oxygen delivery but does not directly increase bleeding potential.
Question 4 of 9
A nursing diagnosis made by a critical thinker using a dynamic nursing process would identify the actual problem and would also:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because critical thinking involves anticipating potential issues to provide proactive care. By predicting potential problems, nurses can prevent complications and tailor interventions accordingly. This step is essential in the nursing process to ensure comprehensive and effective care. Continuing to reassess (A) is important but not the primary focus of a nursing diagnosis. Checking the appropriateness of goals (C) is crucial but comes after identifying the problem and predicting potential issues. Modifying the diagnosis if necessary (D) is a part of critical thinking but not the immediate next step after identifying the actual problem.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is providing education to a patient with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse prioritize?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Limit phosphorus and potassium intake. Patients with chronic kidney disease often have difficulty excreting phosphorus and potassium, leading to potential complications. Limiting phosphorus and potassium intake can help prevent further kidney damage and maintain electrolyte balance. Prioritizing this dietary recommendation is crucial for managing the progression of the disease. Incorrect choices: A: Increasing protein intake can put additional strain on the kidneys and may lead to further deterioration of kidney function. B: Increasing potassium intake can be dangerous for patients with chronic kidney disease as they may have difficulty regulating potassium levels. D: Decreasing fluid intake may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the priority in terms of managing chronic kidney disease.
Question 6 of 9
What should the nurse do first when a client with a history of hypertension presents with severe headache?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer pain relief. The nurse should address the client's immediate symptom of severe headache to provide comfort and assess the severity of the condition. Pain relief can help decrease anxiety and prevent complications. Monitoring vital signs (B) is important but treating the symptom should take priority. Monitoring ECG (C) is not necessary for a headache presentation. Administering insulin (D) is not indicated for a client presenting with a severe headache.
Question 7 of 9
What is the best intervention for a client who is vomiting after surgery?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer morphine. The rationale is that vomiting after surgery can be a side effect of pain medication such as morphine. By administering morphine, the pain is reduced, which can help alleviate the vomiting. This intervention targets the root cause of the vomiting. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Administering antiemetics may help with nausea but does not address the underlying cause of vomiting. B: Placing the client in a supine position may worsen vomiting due to increased abdominal pressure. C: Encouraging deep breathing may help with relaxation but does not directly address the vomiting caused by pain.
Question 8 of 9
What is the most appropriate intervention for a client with an obstructed airway?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. This intervention is crucial for a client with an obstructed airway as it helps maintain oxygenation while efforts are made to clear the obstruction. Oxygen administration ensures the client receives adequate oxygen supply to prevent hypoxia and further complications. Monitoring respiratory rate (B) is important but not the priority when airway obstruction is present. Applying a cold compress (C) or administering corticosteroids (D) are not appropriate interventions for an obstructed airway and do not address the immediate need for adequate oxygenation.
Question 9 of 9
Which condition is characterized by writhing, twisting movements of the face and limbs?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Huntington's chorea. Huntington's chorea is a genetic disorder characterized by involuntary, writhing, and twisting movements of the face and limbs, known as chorea. This is due to degeneration of certain brain cells. Epilepsy (A) involves seizures, not specific movements. Parkinson's (B) is characterized by tremors and rigidity, not chorea. Multiple sclerosis (C) affects the central nervous system, causing a variety of symptoms, but not typically chorea.