ATI RN
health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the most important intervention for a client with a wound infection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antibiotics. Antibiotics are crucial in treating wound infections as they target and eliminate the infection-causing bacteria, preventing the infection from spreading and promoting healing. Applying a cold compress (choice B) or heat (choice C) may provide temporary relief but do not address the underlying infection. Administering IV fluids (choice D) may be necessary for hydration, but it does not directly treat the infection. Antibiotics directly target the infection, making it the most important intervention for a client with a wound infection.
Question 2 of 9
Which condition places a client at risk for elevated ammonia levels?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lupus. Lupus can affect the kidneys, leading to renal impairment. Renal impairment can decrease the body's ability to excrete ammonia, resulting in elevated levels. Renal failure (choice A) can also lead to elevated ammonia levels, but lupus specifically contributes to renal issues. Cirrhosis (choice B) primarily affects the liver, not kidneys. Psoriasis (choice C) is a skin condition and does not directly impact ammonia levels.
Question 3 of 9
What term describes excessive stretching of a ligament, as seen in a client with a pulled ligament?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: strain. A strain refers to excessive stretching or tearing of a muscle or tendon, not a ligament. A sprain (choice A) is the correct term for excessive stretching of a ligament. Subluxation (choice C) refers to partial dislocation of a joint, not a ligament injury. Distortion (choice D) is a general term that does not specifically describe ligament stretching. Therefore, the correct term for excessive stretching of a ligament is a sprain, making choice A the correct answer.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of stroke. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Patients with a history of stroke are at increased risk for DVT due to immobility and potential damage to blood vessels. Monitoring for DVT is crucial to prevent life-threatening complications like pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism (A) is a potential complication of DVT but not the most direct concern. Hypertension (C) is a common condition but not directly linked to a history of stroke. Hyperglycemia (D) is more commonly associated with diabetes rather than stroke history. Monitoring for DVT in stroke patients is essential for early detection and intervention.
Question 5 of 9
Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: variable decelerations. Variable decelerations are abrupt decreases in fetal heart rate that vary in depth, duration, and timing, which can indicate cord compression. The variability in these decelerations suggests that the umbilical cord is being compressed intermittently. Early decelerations (B) are usually caused by head compression during contractions and mirror the contractions, not indicating cord compression. Bradycardia (C) is a slow heart rate, which can be caused by various factors but is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (D) is a fast heart rate, which can also be caused by various factors but is not typically associated with cord compression.
Question 6 of 9
What is the best way to assess a client's nutritional status?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitoring serum albumin levels. This is because serum albumin is a protein synthesized by the liver that reflects long-term protein intake and overall nutritional status. Low levels indicate malnutrition or inflammation. Obtaining a dietary history (choice A) is important but may not always reflect the actual nutritional status. Monitoring weight (choice C) is helpful but may not provide a comprehensive view of the client's nutritional status. Providing a meal plan (choice D) is a proactive approach but does not directly assess the client's current nutritional status.
Question 7 of 9
What assessment framework provides additional modesty for clients, such as teenage girls?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Head to toe. This assessment framework allows for modesty by assessing one body part at a time, starting from the head down to the toe. This approach ensures clients, especially teenage girls, feel comfortable and respected during the assessment process. Other choices like A (Body systems) involve assessing multiple body parts simultaneously, potentially compromising modesty. Functional assessment (B) focuses on assessing specific functions rather than individual body parts, which may not address the modesty concern. Focused assessment (C) targets a specific area of concern, which may not provide a comprehensive evaluation while also potentially overlooking modesty concerns.
Question 8 of 9
Which client must avoid foods high in potassium?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client with renal disease must avoid foods high in potassium to prevent hyperkalemia, as the kidneys are unable to properly filter and excrete potassium. Foods high in potassium can lead to dangerous levels of potassium in the blood, which can be life-threatening for individuals with renal disease. Choice A is incorrect because a client receiving diuretic therapy may actually need to increase their potassium intake due to the potassium-wasting effects of diuretics. Choice B is incorrect as having an ileostomy does not necessarily affect potassium levels. Choice C is incorrect because clients with metabolic alkalosis may actually benefit from consuming foods high in potassium to help correct the acid-base imbalance.
Question 9 of 9
A woman comes to the clinic complaining of severe itching on her lower legs. Upon examination, the nurse notices red, scaly patches on the skin. The nurse suspects that this is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Psoriasis. Psoriasis is characterized by red, scaly patches on the skin, which align with the symptoms described. Psoriasis commonly affects the lower legs and is associated with severe itching. Eczema (choice B) is characterized by red, inflamed, and itchy skin patches, but typically presents differently from psoriasis. Contact dermatitis (choice C) is a localized reaction that occurs when the skin comes into contact with an irritant or allergen, and fungal infections (choice D) typically present with itching, redness, and sometimes peeling skin, but not necessarily scaly patches like psoriasis.