What is the most effective intervention for a client with shortness of breath and a history of heart failure?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide oxygen therapy. For a client with shortness of breath and a history of heart failure, oxygen therapy is the most effective intervention as it helps improve oxygenation and relieve respiratory distress. Administering diuretics may help manage fluid retention but does not directly address the breathing difficulty. Encouraging deep breathing may be beneficial for some respiratory conditions but may not be sufficient for a client with heart failure and shortness of breath. Applying oxygen therapy is similar to providing oxygen therapy and can help improve oxygen levels, but providing oxygen therapy is more specific and effective in this case.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D - unexplained vaginal bleeding. This is a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy as it could indicate a serious underlying condition such as endometrial cancer. Hormone replacement therapy can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, so it should not be used in the presence of unexplained vaginal bleeding. A, B, and C are incorrect: A: Family history of stroke is not a direct contraindication for hormone replacement therapy. It may influence the decision-making process, but it is not a definitive contraindication. B: Ovaries removed before age 45 may actually be an indication for hormone replacement therapy to manage symptoms of menopause. C: Frequent hot flashes and/or night sweats are common symptoms of menopause and are not contraindications for hormone replacement therapy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer anticoagulants. Anticoagulants help prevent the blood clot from getting larger and reduce the risk of it breaking loose and causing a pulmonary embolism. Other choices are incorrect because B: Monitoring vital signs alone does not treat the DVT, C: Providing bed rest can increase the risk of complications like pulmonary embolism, and D: Administering fibrinolytics is not the first-line treatment for DVT.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Administer antiemetics Rationale: The priority nursing action for a client vomiting post-surgery is to administer antiemetics to control nausea and vomiting, preventing complications like dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. Antiemetics help the client feel more comfortable and promote recovery. Administering fluids (choices B and C) is important, but addressing the vomiting itself takes precedence. Pain relief (choice D) is essential, but not the priority in this case.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer glucose. Hypoglycemia is low blood sugar, and administering glucose rapidly raises blood sugar levels to restore normal function. Glucagon (choice B) is used for severe hypoglycemia when the individual cannot consume oral glucose. Insulin (choice C) lowers blood sugar levels and is contraindicated in hypoglycemia. Corticosteroids (choice D) can worsen hypoglycemia by affecting glucose metabolism. Administering glucose is the most direct and effective intervention for hypoglycemia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Creatinine. Creatinine is a waste product produced by muscles and excreted by the kidneys. An elevated creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, making it a key indicator for early detection of renal failure. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) can also be elevated in renal failure, but creatinine is a more specific and sensitive marker. Sodium and potassium levels are not directly related to renal failure detection.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) can cause adrenal insufficiency. 2. Corticosteroids help prevent adrenal insufficiency in TPN patients. 3. Monitoring corticosteroid administration ensures adrenal function. 4. Monitoring blood glucose or serum glucose levels is important but not specific to TPN. 5. Dehydration can be monitored but is not directly related to TPN.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the purpose of health assessment is not solely to identify the client's major disease process. Health assessment also includes collecting information about the client's health status, clarifying their ability to pay for health care, and evaluating client outcomes. Identifying the disease process is just one component of a comprehensive health assessment. The other choices (B, C, D) are incorrect because they all represent valid purposes of health assessment. Collecting information about health status helps in understanding the client's overall well-being, clarifying the ability to pay for health care assists in planning appropriate care, and evaluating client outcomes is essential for monitoring progress and adjusting interventions as needed.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobilize the spine. This is the most appropriate intervention for a client with a suspected spinal cord injury to prevent further damage. Immobilization helps stabilize the spine and reduce the risk of spinal cord compression or injury. Administering pain relief (B) or IV fluids (C) should only be done after proper spinal immobilization to avoid exacerbating the injury. Placing the client in a supine position (D) can be beneficial if done carefully after spine immobilization, but immobilizing the spine takes precedence to prevent any potential movement that could worsen the injury.