ATI RN
Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the most effective intervention for a client experiencing a panic attack?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because lorazepam is a fast-acting medication that can help reduce the intensity of a panic attack quickly. It works by calming the central nervous system and reducing anxiety symptoms. Encouraging slow, deep breathing (choice A) can be helpful, but it may not be as effective as medication in stopping a severe panic attack. Lying down (choice C) can provide comfort but does not address the underlying physiological response. Breathing into a paper bag (choice D) can actually be harmful as it may lead to hyperventilation.
Question 2 of 9
What instructions should the nurse give to a client who will undergo mammography?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Do not use underarm deodorant. This instruction is important because deodorant can interfere with the imaging results by causing artifacts on the mammogram images. Using deodorant can lead to false positives or false negatives, affecting the accuracy of the test results. Choice A is incorrect because using underarm deodorant can negatively impact the mammogram results. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need for the client to fast before a mammogram. Choice D is also incorrect as having a friend drive you home is not a necessary instruction for a mammography appointment.
Question 3 of 9
What are the types of nursing assessments? (Select one that doesn't apply)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mental. Nursing assessments typically include physical, focused, and emergency assessments. Mental assessments are more commonly associated with psychiatric nursing rather than general nursing assessments. Mental assessments focus on assessing a patient's mental status, emotions, and cognitive functions, which are not typically part of routine nursing assessments. Therefore, mental assessments do not fall under the types of assessments typically performed by general nurses.
Question 4 of 9
In a patient with anisocoria, the nurse would expect to observe:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Anisocoria is a condition where pupils are of unequal size. 2. It is typically caused by issues in the eye muscles or nerves controlling pupil size. 3. The nurse would expect to observe pupils of different sizes. 4. Dilated pupils (choice A) and excessive tearing (choice B) are not indicative of anisocoria. 5. An uneven curvature of the lens (choice D) does not directly relate to pupil size differences. Summary: Correct answer C is supported by the definition of anisocoria and its usual presentation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the characteristic feature of anisocoria.
Question 5 of 9
A mother brings her child in to the clinic for scalp and hair examination. She says that the child has developed irregularly shaped patches on her head with broken-off, stublike hair, and she is worried that this could be some form of premature baldness. She tells the nurse that the child's hair is always kept very short. The nurse reassures her by telling her that it is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: trichotillomania, which may be caused by her child habitually twirling her hair in an absent-minded way. Trichotillomania is a psychological disorder where individuals have an irresistible urge to pull out their hair. In this case, the broken-off, stublike hair and irregularly shaped patches on the child's head are indicative of hair pulling rather than a medical condition like folliculitis (choice A), traumatic alopecia (choice B), or tinea capitis (choice C). The child's hair being kept very short does not align with the characteristic of these conditions, making trichotillomania the most likely explanation.
Question 6 of 9
During an assessment, a patient says that she was diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma 2 years ago. There are various types of glaucoma, such as open-angle glaucoma and closed-angle glaucoma. Which of the following are characteristics of open-angle glaucoma? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It is the most common type of glaucoma. Open-angle glaucoma is indeed the most common type, accounting for about 90% of all glaucoma cases. In open-angle glaucoma, the drainage angle of the eye remains open, but the trabecular meshwork becomes blocked over time. This leads to increased intraocular pressure, which can damage the optic nerve and result in vision loss. A, C, and D are incorrect: A: The symptoms mentioned (sensitivity to light, nausea, halos around lights) are more commonly associated with acute angle-closure glaucoma, not open-angle glaucoma. C: Immediate treatment is not necessarily needed for open-angle glaucoma as it progresses slowly, and treatment can vary based on the severity of the condition. D: Vision loss in open-angle glaucoma typically starts with the loss of peripheral vision, not central vision.
Question 7 of 9
Which areas are most important to address for a client in Buck's traction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Nutrition is important for healing and energy. Step 2: Elimination is crucial for bowel and bladder function. Step 3: Comfort ensures the client's well-being. Step 4: Safety prevents complications. Step 5: ROM exercises can prevent muscle atrophy. Step 6: Transportation and isotonic exercises are not immediate priorities.
Question 8 of 9
A 92-year-old patient has had a stroke, and the right side of his face is drooping. What else would the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dysphagia. In a stroke patient with right-sided facial drooping, dysphagia is highly likely due to the involvement of the facial nerve, leading to difficulty swallowing. Epistaxis (A) is nosebleeds, agenesis (B) is the absence of a body part, and xerostomia (D) is dry mouth, which are not directly related to facial drooping in stroke patients. Dysphagia is a common complication post-stroke due to impaired muscle control, making it the most likely concern for the nurse to suspect in this case.
Question 9 of 9
What is the primary goal for a client with newly diagnosed diabetes?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal for a client with newly diagnosed diabetes is to monitor their blood glucose levels (Answer B). This is essential to understand how their body responds to different foods, activities, and medications. Monitoring blood glucose levels helps in determining the effectiveness of the treatment plan and making necessary adjustments. Teaching the client how to manage their blood glucose levels (Answer A) is important, but monitoring comes first. Monitoring urine output (Answer C) is not as relevant for diabetes management. Administering insulin (Answer D) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the primary goal initially.