ATI RN
Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the most effective intervention for a client experiencing a panic attack?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because lorazepam is a fast-acting medication that can help reduce the intensity of a panic attack quickly. It works by calming the central nervous system and reducing anxiety symptoms. Encouraging slow, deep breathing (choice A) can be helpful, but it may not be as effective as medication in stopping a severe panic attack. Lying down (choice C) can provide comfort but does not address the underlying physiological response. Breathing into a paper bag (choice D) can actually be harmful as it may lead to hyperventilation.
Question 2 of 9
What is the priority nursing action for a client who is experiencing severe chest pain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer nitroglycerin. The priority nursing action for a client experiencing severe chest pain is to administer nitroglycerin to help dilate the blood vessels and improve blood flow to the heart, reducing chest pain. This action helps to address the immediate issue of chest pain and potential heart damage. Administering morphine (B) may be considered if chest pain persists despite nitroglycerin. Administering oxygen (C) can also be helpful but is not the initial priority. Monitoring blood pressure (D) is important but not the most urgent action in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse notices that the mother of a 2-year-old boy brings him to the clinic quite frequently for various injuries and suspects there may be some child abuse involved. The nurse should inspect the young child for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: bruising on the buccal mucosa or gums. This is the most relevant choice as it is a common sign of physical abuse in children. Bruising in unusual places or patterns, such as the mouth, should raise suspicion. Swollen, red tonsils (A) are more likely related to infection rather than abuse. Ulcerations on the hard palate (B) can also be due to various non-abuse related reasons. Small yellow papules along the hard palate (D) are typically harmless and not indicative of abuse. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize signs of potential abuse and take appropriate action to protect the child.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is performing an assessment on a 21-year-old patient and notes that his nasal mucosa appears pale, grey, and swollen. What would be the most appropriate question to ask the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Are you aware of having any allergies?" This question is appropriate because the patient's symptoms of pale, grey, and swollen nasal mucosa suggest an allergic reaction. By asking about allergies, the nurse can gather important information to determine the cause of the symptoms. B: "Do you have an elevated temperature?" - This question is not directly related to the patient's nasal symptoms and does not address the likely allergic reaction. C: "Have you had any symptoms of a cold?" - While cold symptoms may present similarly to allergies, the patient's specific symptoms of pale, grey, and swollen nasal mucosa are more indicative of an allergic reaction. D: "Have you been having frequent nosebleeds?" - This question does not directly address the patient's current symptoms and is not likely related to the nasal mucosa appearance described.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse would plan to use the Nipissing District Developmental Screen with a child who is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (3 years old) because the Nipissing District Developmental Screen is specifically designed for children aged 1 month to 6 years to assess their developmental milestones. It focuses on various areas of development appropriate for this age group, such as motor skills, language, social interaction, and cognitive abilities. Using this tool with a 3-year-old child allows for early identification of potential developmental delays or concerns. Incorrect choices: B (16 years old) - The Nipissing District Developmental Screen is not intended for children above 6 years old. C (8 years old with a developmental delay) - The tool is primarily for early screening, not for children already identified with developmental delays. D (Having difficulty with gross motor skills) - While this child may benefit from assessment, the Nipissing Screen is a comprehensive tool for overall development, not just specific skill deficits.
Question 6 of 9
During the examination of a patient in her third trimester of pregnancy, the nurse notices that the patient's thyroid gland is slightly enlarged. No enlargement had been noted previously. The nurse suspects that:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct: 1. Enlargement of the thyroid gland during pregnancy is a normal finding due to hormonal changes. 2. The thyroid gland enlarges to meet the increased demands of thyroid hormone production. 3. This condition is known as gestational thyrotoxicosis and is usually benign. 4. No further testing is needed for thyroid cancer unless other concerning symptoms are present. Summary: A: Not relevant as iodine deficiency is not typically associated with thyroid enlargement in pregnancy. B: Incorrect as early signs of goitre would involve more pronounced symptoms than just slight enlargement. D: Unnecessary as thyroid cancer is not a common concern in this scenario of a slightly enlarged thyroid in the third trimester of pregnancy.
Question 7 of 9
When examining a patient's eyes, the nurse knows that stimulation of the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because stimulation of the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system results in the elevation of the eyelid (ptosis) and dilation of the pupil (mydriasis). This is due to the action of the dilator pupillae muscle and the superior tarsal muscle. Pupillary constriction (choice A) is controlled by the parasympathetic branch via the sphincter pupillae muscle. Adjusting the eye for near vision (choice B) is controlled by the ciliary muscle, which is under parasympathetic control, not sympathetic. Contraction of the ciliary body (choice D) is also controlled by the parasympathetic system for accommodation of near vision, not the sympathetic system.
Question 8 of 9
In using the ophthalmoscope to assess a patient's eyes, the nurse notes a red glow in the patient's pupils. On the basis of this finding, the nurse would:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): 1. Red glow in pupils indicates a normal reflection off the inner retina known as the red reflex. 2. The red reflex helps to visualize the internal structures of the eye, including the retina. 3. This finding is expected during an ophthalmoscopic examination. 4. No abnormality is suggested by the presence of a red glow in the pupils. Summary of Other Choices: A: Incorrect. Red glow does not indicate an opacity in the lens or cornea. B: Incorrect. Checking the light source is unnecessary as red glow is a normal finding. D: Incorrect. Referral is not needed as red reflex is a normal part of an ophthalmoscopic exam.
Question 9 of 9
A female patient does not speak English well, and the nurse needs to choose an interpreter. Which of the following would be the most appropriate choice?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A trained interpreter. Choosing a trained interpreter ensures accurate communication and confidentiality. Professional interpreters have the necessary language skills and cultural competence to facilitate effective communication between the healthcare provider and the patient. Using a family member (choices B and C) may compromise confidentiality and accuracy due to potential bias or lack of professional training. Similarly, selecting a volunteer university student (choice D) may result in misinterpretation or breach of privacy as they may not have the same level of expertise as a trained interpreter. Ultimately, the most appropriate choice is a trained interpreter to ensure clear and accurate communication while respecting the patient's privacy and dignity.