ATI RN
health assessment test bank jarvis Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the most effective action when a client presents with acute shortness of breath and a history of COPD?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. In acute shortness of breath with COPD, oxygen therapy is crucial to improve oxygenation levels and alleviate respiratory distress. Oxygen can help reduce the workload on the lungs and heart. Antibiotics (B) are not indicated unless there is a suspected bacterial infection. Monitoring blood glucose (C) is important in diabetes management but not the priority in acute respiratory distress. Administering pain relief (D) may not address the underlying cause of the shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy directly targets the respiratory issue in COPD exacerbation, making it the most effective initial intervention.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is assessing a teenage girl newly admitted to the pediatric unit. What efficient framework provides additional modesty?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Head to toe. The head-to-toe assessment is efficient because it follows a systematic approach starting from the head and progressing downward, ensuring that all body parts are assessed while maintaining the patient's modesty. This approach allows the nurse to gather comprehensive data without compromising the patient's privacy. A: Body systems - While assessing by body systems is important, it may not provide the same level of modesty as the head-to-toe approach. B: Functional - Assessing by function focuses on specific body functions rather than a comprehensive assessment of all body systems. It may not address all aspects of the patient's health. C: Focused - A focused assessment targets specific health issues and may not cover all body systems comprehensively, potentially missing important findings.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is providing education to a patient about managing hypertension. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates the need for further education?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because stopping medication once blood pressure returns to normal can lead to a relapse of hypertension. Step 1: Educate the patient that hypertension is a chronic condition requiring long-term management. Step 2: Explain the importance of continuing medication even when blood pressure is controlled. Step 3: Emphasize the risks of stopping medication abruptly. Other choices are incorrect because they promote positive behaviors for hypertension management: A: Monitoring blood pressure is essential. B: Taking medication consistently is crucial. C: Avoiding high-sodium foods helps control blood pressure.
Question 4 of 9
Which disease is least likely to be associated with increased potential for bleeding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, leading to impaired red blood cell production but does not directly affect clotting factors. Metastatic liver cancer (A) can cause liver dysfunction and decreased production of clotting factors, increasing bleeding risk. Gram-negative septicemia (B) can lead to disseminated intravascular coagulation and excessive bleeding. Iron-deficiency anemia (D) can result in microcytic red blood cells and decreased oxygen delivery but does not directly increase bleeding potential.
Question 5 of 9
What does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) regulate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because HIPAA regulates the privacy and security of protected health information. This includes how healthcare providers, insurers, and other entities handle and safeguard patient information to ensure confidentiality. Choice A is incorrect as HIPAA does not dictate who provides client care. Choice C is incorrect as HIPAA focuses on the protection of health information, not how insurance information is obtained. Choice D is incorrect as HIPAA does not specify where a chart can be stored, but rather how the information within it is protected.
Question 6 of 9
What immediate intervention should a nurse provide for a hypoglycemic client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct immediate intervention for a hypoglycemic client is to provide 4-6 ounces of fruit juice with sugar. This is because the client needs a quick source of glucose to raise their blood sugar levels rapidly. Fruit juice with sugar is easily absorbed, providing a fast-acting solution to hypoglycemia. Commercially prepared glucose tablets may take longer to be absorbed than fruit juice. Hard candies and honey may not contain enough sugar to raise blood sugar levels quickly compared to fruit juice. Therefore, fruit juice with sugar is the most effective option for immediate intervention in hypoglycemic clients.
Question 7 of 9
A patient states, "I feel so sad all of the time. I can't feel happy even doing things I used to enjoy doing.' He also says that he is tired, sleeps poorly, and has no energy. To differentiate between dysthymic disorder and a major depressive disorder, which of the following questions should the nurse ask him?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is C: "How long have you been feeling this way?" This question is essential to differentiate between dysthymic disorder and major depressive disorder. In dysthymic disorder, symptoms persist for at least 2 years, whereas in major depressive disorder, symptoms typically last for at least 2 weeks. By asking how long the patient has been feeling this way, the nurse can determine the duration of the symptoms and make a more accurate diagnosis. Summary of other choices: A: "Has there been any change in your weight?" This question is more relevant to assessing changes in appetite, which can be a symptom of depression, but it does not differentiate between dysthymic and major depressive disorders. B: "Are you having any thoughts of suicide?" While important to assess for safety, this question does not help differentiate between the two disorders. D: "Are you having feelings of worthlessness?" This question is relevant to assessing symptoms of depression but does not
Question 8 of 9
What should the nurse do first when caring for a client with a suspected spinal cord injury?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobilize the spine. This is the first priority because it helps prevent further injury to the spinal cord. By immobilizing the spine, the nurse ensures that any movement doesn't worsen the existing injury. Placing the client in a supine position (B) can be done after immobilization. Administering analgesics (C) should not be done before assessing the extent of the injury. Assessing the airway (D) is important but should come after immobilizing the spine to prevent any unnecessary movement.
Question 9 of 9
When formulating diagnostic statements, what would the nurse use?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Diagnostic reasoning. When formulating diagnostic statements, nurses use diagnostic reasoning to analyze data, identify patterns, and make accurate clinical judgments. This process involves critical thinking and synthesizing information to reach a conclusion. Physical assessment skills (C) are important in data collection but not the primary focus in formulating diagnostic statements. Rationale (A) refers to providing reasons or justifications and is not directly related to the diagnostic process. American Nurses Association recommendations (B) may guide nursing practice but are not specifically used in formulating diagnostic statements.