What is the most effective action when a client presents with acute shortness of breath and a history of COPD?

Questions 84

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

health assessment test bank jarvis Questions

Question 1 of 9

What is the most effective action when a client presents with acute shortness of breath and a history of COPD?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. In acute shortness of breath with COPD, oxygen therapy is crucial to improve oxygenation levels and alleviate respiratory distress. Oxygen can help reduce the workload on the lungs and heart. Antibiotics (B) are not indicated unless there is a suspected bacterial infection. Monitoring blood glucose (C) is important in diabetes management but not the priority in acute respiratory distress. Administering pain relief (D) may not address the underlying cause of the shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy directly targets the respiratory issue in COPD exacerbation, making it the most effective initial intervention.

Question 2 of 9

What is the most appropriate intervention for a client with a wound infection?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antibiotics. This is the most appropriate intervention for a wound infection as antibiotics target the underlying bacterial infection causing the wound infection. Antibiotics help to eliminate the infection and prevent it from spreading further. Administering antibiotics is crucial in treating wound infections to promote healing and prevent complications. Choice B (Apply sterile dressing) is incorrect as simply applying a sterile dressing does not address the underlying infection. Choice C (Cleanse and dress the wound) is also incorrect because while wound cleansing is important, it alone may not be sufficient to treat a wound infection. Choice D (Administer analgesics) is incorrect because analgesics only provide pain relief and do not address the infection itself.

Question 3 of 9

A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic heart failure. Which of the following interventions is the priority?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because monitoring vital signs and fluid status is crucial in managing chronic heart failure. This intervention helps in assessing the patient's condition, detecting any signs of deterioration, and ensuring appropriate fluid balance. Administering diuretics (A) may be necessary but should be based on the patient's fluid status. Encouraging rest (B) is important, but monitoring vital signs takes precedence. Teaching about dietary changes (D) is essential, but ensuring the patient's immediate stability through monitoring is the priority.

Question 4 of 9

What is the nurse's most appropriate response when a patient with hearing impairment is encountered?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the communication method preferred by the patient. This response is appropriate because it demonstrates person-centered care by respecting the patient's communication preferences. By assessing the patient's preferred communication method, the nurse can effectively communicate with the patient and provide the best care. Summary of other choices: B: Requesting a sign language interpreter may not be necessary if the patient does not use sign language. C: Using loud and exaggerated facial movements can be demeaning and ineffective in communication. D: Assuming all older adults have hearing deficits is a stereotype and may not be accurate for every individual.

Question 5 of 9

A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of heart failure. The nurse should monitor for which of the following signs of fluid overload?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Swelling in the legs and shortness of breath. In heart failure, the heart is unable to pump effectively, leading to fluid accumulation in the body. Swelling in the legs (edema) is a classic sign of fluid overload as the fluid pools in the lower extremities. Shortness of breath occurs due to fluid accumulating in the lungs, causing difficulty in breathing. Weight loss and increased appetite (A) are not typical signs of fluid overload. Increased urine output and dehydration (B) are more indicative of fluid deficit. Nausea and vomiting (D) can occur in various conditions but are not specific to fluid overload in heart failure.

Question 6 of 9

Which disease is least likely to be associated with increased potential for bleeding?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, leading to impaired red blood cell production but does not directly affect clotting factors. Metastatic liver cancer (A) can cause liver dysfunction and decreased production of clotting factors, increasing bleeding risk. Gram-negative septicemia (B) can lead to disseminated intravascular coagulation and excessive bleeding. Iron-deficiency anemia (D) can result in microcytic red blood cells and decreased oxygen delivery but does not directly increase bleeding potential.

Question 7 of 9

What is the highest priority for a nurse treating a client with a stab wound to the chest?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Secure the airway. This is the highest priority for a nurse treating a client with a stab wound to the chest because airway management is crucial for ensuring the client can breathe effectively. If the airway is compromised, the client may not be able to oxygenate properly, leading to serious complications or even death. Administering oxygen (choice B) can help with oxygenation but is not as critical as ensuring the airway is clear. Turning the client (choice C) or applying an abdominal binder (choice D) are not appropriate actions for a stab wound to the chest and would not address the immediate life-threatening issue of airway compromise.

Question 8 of 9

What does a comprehensive assessment include?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a comprehensive assessment involves gathering a complete health history and conducting a thorough physical examination to evaluate the client's overall health status. This includes assessing past medical history, family history, current medications, lifestyle factors, and performing a head-to-toe physical examination. This holistic approach helps in identifying any potential health issues or risk factors. Choice B is incorrect because a specific focus on a body system is not comprehensive and may miss other important aspects of the client's health. Choice C is incorrect as emergency triage is a rapid assessment to determine the severity of a medical condition and prioritize treatment, not a comprehensive assessment. Choice D is incorrect because a specific assessment of client complaints is focused only on the reported issues and may not provide a comprehensive overview of the client's health.

Question 9 of 9

Which organ is responsible for the extensive metabolism of acetaminophen?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver. The liver is responsible for the extensive metabolism of acetaminophen through various pathways, including glucuronidation, sulfation, and oxidation. It converts acetaminophen into less toxic metabolites for elimination. The kidneys (B) primarily filter blood and regulate fluid balance; the lungs (C) are involved in gas exchange; and the pancreas (D) produces digestive enzymes and insulin, not involved in acetaminophen metabolism. Therefore, the liver is the correct choice for this question.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days