ATI RN
Pharmacology Across the Lifespan Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the most common side effect of calcium channel blockers?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Peripheral edema. Calcium channel blockers cause vasodilation leading to fluid accumulation in the peripheral tissues, resulting in peripheral edema. Dry mouth (A) and coughing (B) are more commonly associated with other medications like antihistamines and ACE inhibitors. Bradycardia (D) is a potential side effect of calcium channel blockers but is less common than peripheral edema.
Question 2 of 5
A 45-year-old male with hyperlipidemia is prescribed simvastatin. Simvastatin works by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase. Simvastatin is a statin medication that works by inhibiting the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase, which is involved in the synthesis of cholesterol in the liver. By inhibiting this enzyme, simvastatin reduces the production of cholesterol in the body, leading to lower LDL cholesterol levels. Choice A is incorrect because simvastatin actually decreases LDL cholesterol levels. Choice C is incorrect as blocking cholesterol absorption in the intestine is the mechanism of action for a different class of drugs called bile acid sequestrants. Choice D is incorrect as simvastatin primarily reduces LDL cholesterol levels and has a modest effect on increasing HDL cholesterol levels.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. Spironolactone works by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice B: 1. Spironolactone is a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist. 2. It blocks aldosterone receptors in the kidneys. 3. Aldosterone is a hormone that promotes sodium and water retention, leading to increased blood volume and pressure. 4. By blocking aldosterone receptors, spironolactone reduces sodium and water retention, helping to decrease blood volume and pressure in heart failure patients. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: A: Inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys is the mechanism of action of loop diuretics, not spironolactone. C: Spironolactone actually increases potassium retention, not excretion. D: Increasing cardiac contractility is the mechanism of action of positive inotropic agents, not spironolactone.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following drugs is commonly prescribed for the treatment of hypertension and works by blocking the calcium channels in the heart and blood vessels?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amlodipine. It is a calcium channel blocker commonly prescribed for hypertension by inhibiting calcium influx into heart and blood vessel cells, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure. Lisinopril (A) is an ACE inhibitor, Losartan (C) is an ARB, and Hydrochlorothiazide (D) is a thiazide diuretic, all of which work through different mechanisms to lower blood pressure.
Question 5 of 5
Drugs with low efficacy bind to receptors but do not fully activate them. Such 'partial agonists' can act as either a weak agonist (in the absence of a full agonist), or as a competitive antagonist (if a full agonist is present). Which curve best reflects the effect produced by this type of agonist when it is administered alone?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a partial agonist binds to receptors but only partially activates them, resulting in a submaximal response. Curve B depicts a submaximal response that is lower than the maximal response achieved with a full agonist but higher than the response with no agonist. Curve A represents a full agonist with a maximal response, not a partial agonist. Curve C shows no response, which does not align with the partial agonist's characteristic of producing a submaximal response. Curve D depicts an inverse agonist that decreases the basal activity of receptors, not the partial agonist's partial activation. Therefore, the best representation of a partial agonist's effect when administered alone is Curve B.