ATI RN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vitreous hemorrhage can result from various causes, with diabetic retinopathy being a significant contributor.
Question 2 of 9
A healthcare professional is auscultating the lungs of a client who has pleurisy. Which of the following adventitious breath sounds should the professional expect to hear?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Loud, scratchy sounds. Pleurisy is inflammation of the pleura, causing friction between layers of the lung lining, resulting in loud, scratchy sounds known as pleural friction rubs. Squeaky, musical sounds (B) are indicative of wheezing in conditions like asthma. Popping sounds (C) can be heard in conditions like atelectasis or pneumonia. Snoring sounds (D) are typically associated with upper airway obstruction, not pleurisy. Therefore, in the context of pleurisy, the healthcare professional should expect to hear loud, scratchy sounds during auscultation.
Question 3 of 9
Thirty-six hours postoperatively a patient has a temperature of 100°F (37.8°C). What is the most likely cause of this temperature elevation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Low-grade fever within the first 48 hours postoperatively is typically a normal response to surgical stress.
Question 4 of 9
Tom is diagnosed with congestive heart failure and asks why fluid accumulates in his lungs. You respond by saying
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary congestion as blood backs up in the lungs.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse explains to the patient that the primary purpose of such a record is to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Electronic health records centralize patient data, ensuring all providers have access to complete and up-to-date information.
Question 6 of 9
On the first postoperative day following a bowel resection, the patient complains of abdominal and incisional pain rated 9 on a scale of 0 to 10. Postoperative orders include morphine, 4 mg IV q2 hr, for pain and may repeat morphine, 4 mg IV, for breakthrough pain. The nurse determines that it has been only 2 hours since the last dose of morphine and wants to wait a little longer. What effect does the nurse’s action have on the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Delaying pain relief contributes to unnecessary suffering and can negatively impact recovery.
Question 7 of 9
A client with tuberculosis is starting combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse NOT plan to administer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Acyclovir. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes infections, not tuberculosis. Rifampin, Isoniazid, and Pyrazinamide are all first-line drugs for tuberculosis treatment. Rifampin is a bactericidal agent, Isoniazid disrupts mycobacterial cell wall synthesis, and Pyrazinamide targets actively replicating bacteria. Therefore, the nurse should not plan to administer Acyclovir as it is not indicated for tuberculosis treatment.
Question 8 of 9
Priority Decision: A patient in the last stages of life is experiencing shortness of breath and air hunger. Based on practice guidelines, what is the most appropriate action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Comfort measures tailored to the individual patient’s needs are prioritized in palliative care, ensuring the patient feels supported and comfortable.
Question 9 of 9
A clinical polysomnography (PSG) may be performed on a patient with signs and symptoms of a sleep disorder. What measures and observations does this study include (select all that apply)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answers are A, B, E, F, G, H, and I. PSG includes heart rate, SpO2, airflow, muscle tone, respiratory effort, eye movements, and brain activity. Surface body temperature (C) and actigraphy (J) are not typically part of PSG.