ATI RN
jarvis physical examination and health assessment 9th edition test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the most common cause of erectile dysfunction in older men?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis is the most common cause of erectile dysfunction in older men as it leads to reduced blood flow to the penis, affecting the ability to achieve and maintain an erection. Psychological stress (A) can contribute to erectile dysfunction but is not the primary cause. Adverse drug reactions (B) can also lead to erectile dysfunction, but it is not as common as atherosclerosis. Autonomic neuropathy (D) can affect nerve impulses in the penis but is not as prevalent as atherosclerosis in causing erectile dysfunction in older men.
Question 2 of 5
An 82-year-old woman receives oral amoxicillin-clavulanate for a skin abscess on her leg. She develops new onset of frequent watery stool that persists for several days after the antibiotic is stopped. You obtain a stool for Clostridium difficile antigen, toxin, and polymerase chain reaction (PCR). The antigen and PCR are both positive. She has never had C. difficile infection before. What one statement is the best answer regarding her management?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Either vancomycin or fidaxomicin are recommended for the first episode of C. difficile infection. 1. Choice A is incorrect because metronidazole is no longer recommended as first-line treatment due to increasing resistance. 2. Choice B is incorrect because there is no evidence suggesting older adults require a longer duration of treatment with vancomycin for their first episode. 3. Choice C is incorrect because while fecal transplantation can be used in refractory cases, it is not typically the first-line treatment. 4. The rationale for D being correct is that both vancomycin and fidaxomicin are recommended as first-line treatments for the initial episode of C. difficile infection based on current guidelines. This allows for flexibility in selecting the appropriate antibiotic based on individual patient factors.
Question 3 of 5
Mr. Hunter, a 69-year-old man, complains of urinary frequency and urgency that have increased over the past several months. There is no dysuria, hematuria, or sensation of incomplete voiding. He drinks 2 cups of coffee daily and diet cola multiple times a day. His International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) is 6, with a bother score of 1 indicating mild voiding symptoms with low impact on his quality of life. His medical history includes hypertension, coronary artery disease, and benign prostatic hyperplasia. Current medications are aspirin, metoprolol, and hydrochlorothiazide. Physical examination reveals normal sized prostate. Which of the following is the best next step?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct next step is C: Lifestyle modifications. Given the patient's history of mild voiding symptoms and benign prostatic hyperplasia, the first approach should be conservative management. Lifestyle modifications, such as reducing caffeine intake from coffee and diet cola, can help alleviate urinary symptoms. Additionally, optimizing fluid intake and bladder habits can also improve symptoms. Urinalysis (choice A) may be considered later if symptoms persist or worsen. Cystoscopy (choice B) is invasive and not indicated at this stage. Tamsulosin (choice D) is a medication for BPH, but since the patient's symptoms are mild and bother score is low, starting with lifestyle modifications is more appropriate.
Question 4 of 5
Even though older adults are less likely to get counseled for smoking cessation, they have which one of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Approximately 25% better quit rates than younger individuals. Older adults tend to have higher quit rates compared to younger individuals due to factors like increased motivation, life experience, and health concerns. Older adults often have more resources and support systems in place to help them quit smoking successfully. Choice A is incorrect because older adults do not necessarily have the same quit rates as younger individuals. Choice B is also incorrect as the difference in quit rates is not as high as 50%. Choice D is incorrect as older adults do not generally have much lower quit rates than younger individuals.
Question 5 of 5
A 69-year-old female presents to your office for routine primary care. Her elder sister was recently diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease, and she wonders what steps she can take to reduce her own risk of developing dementia. Which of the following statements is true about the prevention of dementia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: There is moderate quality evidence to suggest control of cardiovascular and metabolic risk factors, such as blood pressure, weight, and blood sugar, may reduce the risk of dementia. This statement is true because studies have shown that managing cardiovascular and metabolic risk factors can help reduce the risk of developing dementia. High blood pressure, obesity, and diabetes have been linked to an increased risk of cognitive decline and dementia. By controlling these risk factors through lifestyle changes or medication, individuals can potentially lower their risk of developing dementia. Choice A is incorrect because while vitamin B12 and fish oil may have some benefits for cognitive health, the evidence supporting their use in preventing dementia is not strong. Choice B is incorrect because while genetics and family history play a role in dementia risk, there are behavioral interventions, such as maintaining a healthy lifestyle and managing risk factors, that can help reduce the risk of dementia. Choice D is incorrect because there is not enough strong evidence to support the claim that cannabinoids can reduce rates