ATI RN
health assessment test bank jarvis Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the most appropriate intervention for a client with suspected peritonitis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antibiotics. Peritonitis is an inflammation of the peritoneum typically caused by infection. Administering antibiotics is crucial to treat the underlying infection. IV fluids (B) may be necessary to maintain hydration, but antibiotics address the root cause. Placing the client in a supine position (C) is not a specific intervention for peritonitis. Administering epinephrine (D) is not indicated for peritonitis as it is not a treatment for infection.
Question 2 of 5
What is the first action the nurse should take when a client presents with signs of respiratory distress?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Open the airway. This is the first action because in respiratory distress, ensuring a clear airway is crucial for adequate oxygenation. Opening the airway helps facilitate breathing and prevents further complications. Administering oxygen (choice B) can be done after ensuring the airway is clear. Administering medication (choice C) and pain relief (choice D) are not the initial priority in managing respiratory distress.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of heart failure. The nurse should monitor for which of the following signs of fluid overload?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Swelling in the legs and shortness of breath. In heart failure, the heart is unable to pump effectively, leading to fluid accumulation in the body. Swelling in the legs (edema) is a classic sign of fluid overload as the fluid pools in the lower extremities. Shortness of breath occurs due to fluid accumulating in the lungs, causing difficulty in breathing. Weight loss and increased appetite (A) are not typical signs of fluid overload. Increased urine output and dehydration (B) are more indicative of fluid deficit. Nausea and vomiting (D) can occur in various conditions but are not specific to fluid overload in heart failure.
Question 4 of 5
What is the best intervention for a client who is vomiting after surgery?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer morphine. The rationale is that vomiting after surgery can be a side effect of pain medication such as morphine. By administering morphine, the pain is reduced, which can help alleviate the vomiting. This intervention targets the root cause of the vomiting. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Administering antiemetics may help with nausea but does not address the underlying cause of vomiting. B: Placing the client in a supine position may worsen vomiting due to increased abdominal pressure. C: Encouraging deep breathing may help with relaxation but does not directly address the vomiting caused by pain.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with heart failure tells the nurse, "I can't breathe very well at night." The nurse should ask:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it helps differentiate between orthopnea (difficulty breathing when lying down) and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (sudden awakening due to difficulty breathing). By asking about worsening symptoms when lying down, the nurse can assess if the patient has orthopnea, a classic symptom of heart failure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not specifically target the nighttime breathing difficulty associated with heart failure.
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