ATI RN
Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the most appropriate amount for a weekly weight reduction goal?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate amount for a weekly weight reduction goal is typically .5 to 1 pound per week. This rate of weight loss is considered safe and sustainable in the long term. Losing weight too quickly (options B, C, D) can be harmful to your health and may lead to muscle loss, nutritional deficiencies, and a slow metabolism. Rapid weight loss is also harder to maintain in the long run. Gradual weight loss of .5 to 1 pound per week allows for healthy changes to diet and exercise habits, making it more likely to be maintained over time. It is also more likely to result in lasting weight loss and overall improvements in health and well-being.
Question 2 of 9
He is afebrile. His abdominal examination reveals normal bowel sounds, but he is very tender in the left upper quadrant and epigastric area. He has no Murphy's sign or tenderness in the right lower quadrant. The remainder of his abdominal examination is normal. His rectal, prostate, penile, and testicular examinations are normal. He has no inguinal hernias or tenderness with that examination. Blood work is pending. What etiology of abdominal pain is most likely causing his symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient's presentation of tenderness in the left upper quadrant and epigastric area, along with normal bowel sounds, is suggestive of acute pancreatitis. This condition typically presents with severe, steady epigastric pain that may radiate to the back or left upper quadrant. Patients may also have tenderness on physical examination in these areas. Acute pancreatitis is commonly associated with risk factors such as gallstones or excessive alcohol consumption.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following percussion notes would you obtain over the gastric bubble?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tympany is the percussion note you would obtain over the gastric bubble. Tympany is a drum-like sound and is typically heard over air-filled structures in the body, such as the stomach, intestines, and lungs. When percussing over the gastric bubble (air-filled stomach), you would expect to hear a tympanic note due to the presence of air in the stomach creating resonance. Resonance (choice A) is a low-pitched, hollow sound heard over normal lung tissue. Hyperresonance (choice C) is an abnormally loud, booming sound heard over hyperinflated lungs, as in conditions like emphysema. Flatness (choice D) is a dull sound heard over solid organs or areas of tissue consolidation, such as over the liver or a pleural effusion.
Question 4 of 9
You are growing fatigued of performing a maneuver on examination because you have never found a positive and are usually pressed for time. How should you next approach this maneuver?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: It is important to adjust your approach based on the clinical context and your suspicion for a certain condition. If you have never found a positive result with a particular maneuver and you are usually pressed for time during examinations, it may be more beneficial to reserve that maneuver for situations where you have a higher suspicion for a correlating condition. This allows you to use your time and resources more effectively, targeting specific tests based on the clinical scenario to increase the chances of identifying any relevant issues. By using the test selectively, you can improve the diagnostic yield without compromising the overall assessment.
Question 5 of 9
A young man feels something in his scrotum and comes to you for clarification. On your examination, you note what feels like a "bag of worms" in the left scrotum, superior to the testicles. Which of the following is most likely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A varicocele is a common cause of a "bag of worms" feeling in the scrotum. It occurs due to the dilation of the veins within the spermatic cord, leading to a palpable mass above the testicle. Varicoceles are more commonly found on the left side due to the anatomy of the left testicular vein, which drains into the left renal vein at a right angle, making it more susceptible to increased pressure and dilation.
Question 6 of 9
A man's wife is upset because when she hugs him with her hands on his left shoulder blade, "it feels creepy." This came on gradually after a recent severe left-sided rotator cuff tear. How long does it usually take to develop muscular atrophy with increased prominence of the scapular spine following a rotator cuff tear?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Following a severe rotator cuff tear, it typically takes around 2-3 months for muscular atrophy to develop with increased prominence of the scapular spine. This is due to disuse of the affected shoulder muscles leading to muscle wasting and changes in the bony structures around the shoulder blade. Over time, the lack of muscle activity causes the shoulder blade to become more prominent and noticeable, which can result in altered sensations during activities like hugging. The gradual onset of these changes aligns with the timeline provided in the question, where the wife started to feel discomfort in her husband's left shoulder blade after the recent severe rotator cuff tear.
Question 7 of 9
His head, ears, nose, throat, and neck examinations are normal. His cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are also normal. On visualization of the anus there is no inflammation, masses, or fissures. Digital rectal examination elicits an irregular, asymmetric, hard nodule on the otherwise normal posterior surface of the prostate. Examination of the scrotum and penis are normal. Laboratory results are pending. What disorder of the anus, rectum, or prostate is mostly likely in this case?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presence of an irregular, asymmetric, hard nodule on the posterior surface of the prostate detected during digital rectal examination raises suspicion for prostate cancer. Prostate cancer commonly presents with nodules or indurations on the prostate gland during physical examination. Other findings, such as no inflammation, masses, or fissures in the anus and normal examinations of the scrotum and penis, further support the likelihood of prostate cancer as the most probable diagnosis in this case. Additional laboratory results, including prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels, can help confirm the diagnosis. Both benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and prostatitis typically present with different symptoms than those described in the scenario, making prostate cancer the most likely disorder based on the provided information. Anorectal cancer is less likely given the absence of findings indicating involvement of the anus or rectum in this case.
Question 8 of 9
A 29-year-old computer programmer comes to your office for evaluation of a headache. The tightening sensation is located all over the head and is of moderate intensity. It used to last minutes, but this time it has lasted for 5 days. He denies photophobia and nausea. He spends several hours each day at a computer monitor/keyboard. He has tried over-the-counter medication; it has dulled the pain but not taken it away. Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The description provided fits the criteria for tension-type headache. Tension-type headaches are typically described as a mild to moderate, dull, band-like pressure or tightness around the head. They can last from minutes to days and are often triggered by stress, anxiety, poor posture, or prolonged computer use. The absence of symptoms like photophobia and nausea, along with the response to over-the-counter medication, further support the diagnosis of tension-type headache in this case. Other headache types such as migraines or cluster headaches usually present with additional symptoms like nausea, photophobia, or tearing of the eye, which are not mentioned in this scenario. Analgesic rebound headaches typically occur in individuals who overuse pain medications, leading to worsening headaches when the medication wears off, but this patient's history does not suggest such misuse.
Question 9 of 9
An 8-year-old girl comes with her mother for evaluation of hair loss. She denies pulling or twisting her hair, and her mother has not noted this behavior at all. She does not put her hair in braids. On physical examination, you note a clearly demarcated, round patch of hair loss without visible scaling or inflammation. There are no hair shafts visible. Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The description provided, which includes a clearly demarcated, round patch of hair loss without visible scaling or inflammation and absence of hair shafts, is characteristic of alopecia areata. Alopecia areata is an autoimmune condition that causes hair loss in round or oval patches on the scalp or other parts of the body. It is not associated with pulling or twisting of hair (trichotillomania), fungal infection (tinea capitis), or hair loss due to constant pulling force (traction alopecia). In alopecia areata, the affected area usually appears smooth and without visible signs of irritation. Treatment options for alopecia areata may include corticosteroid injections, topical immunotherapy, or minoxidil.