ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the main focus of the Magnet Recognition Program?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nursing excellence. The main focus of the Magnet Recognition Program is to recognize healthcare organizations that demonstrate nursing excellence in practice. This includes promoting a positive work environment, professional development, and quality patient care outcomes. Choice A, nurse satisfaction, is important but not the primary focus of the program. Choice B, patient outcomes, is related to nursing excellence but not the main focus of the program. Choice C, financial performance, is not directly related to nursing excellence and is not a focus of the Magnet Recognition Program.
Question 2 of 9
A manager identifies that he is spending more time than desired on completing repetitive paperwork. Which of the following would be appropriate ways to address this issue? (EXCEPT)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because delegating staff evaluations to the staff nurse with the most experience is not an appropriate solution to reduce repetitive paperwork for the manager. Delegating evaluations may not necessarily address the issue of spending too much time on paperwork. A: Combining data reports can help reduce duplication and streamline the paperwork process. C: Assigning the preliminary draft of the schedule to a subcommittee can distribute the workload and free up time for the manager. D: Saying no to inappropriate paperwork assignments is a valid approach to manage workload effectively. In summary, B is the correct answer as it does not directly address the issue of spending excessive time on paperwork compared to the other options provided.
Question 3 of 9
Successful professional nurses benefit from working with mentors. What mutually rewarding outcomes are realized in mentoring relationships? (EXCEPT)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assuming each other's characteristics. In mentoring relationships, the mentor provides guidance, support, and knowledge to the mentee. The mentee learns from the mentor's experience and expertise, but they should not aim to assume the mentor's characteristics. The mentee should develop their own skills and strengths, not mimic the mentor. This is important for the mentee's professional growth and individuality. Choices A, C, and D are all positive outcomes of mentoring relationships, as they focus on achieving goals, building interdependence, and enhancing self-esteem through support and learning.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following best describes the role of a clinical nurse specialist (CNS)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a clinical nurse specialist (CNS) primarily serves as a consultant for nursing staff. They provide expert guidance, education, and support to improve clinical practice and patient outcomes. This role involves collaborating with nurses to enhance their skills and knowledge. A: Direct patient care provider - While CNS may provide direct patient care, their main focus is on educating and supporting nursing staff. B: Administrator of healthcare facilities - This role is typically carried out by nurse administrators, not CNS. D: Policy maker in healthcare organizations - Policy-making is usually the responsibility of healthcare executives or policymakers, not CNS.
Question 5 of 9
After examining her client's abdomen and noting assessment of significant findings, even though the client says it doesn't hurt, the nurse says to a colleague, 'I think something is going on here; I am going to investigate further.' This nurse is using:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intuition. The nurse is using intuition because she is relying on her gut feeling or instinct based on her assessment findings, even though the client denies pain. Intuition involves making quick decisions or judgments based on past experiences and knowledge without conscious reasoning. In this scenario, the nurse's intuition prompts her to investigate further despite the client's denial of pain, indicating a deeper understanding of the situation beyond the obvious. Summary of other choices: A: Deductive reasoning involves drawing specific conclusions based on general principles or premises, which is not evident in this scenario. C: Trial and error is a problem-solving method that involves repeatedly trying different approaches until the desired outcome is achieved, which is not applicable here. D: Modified scientific method involves a structured approach of observation, hypothesis, experimentation, and conclusion, which does not align with the nurse's immediate decision based on intuition.
Question 6 of 9
How are values learned?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Continuous reinforcement is the correct answer because values are primarily learned through repeated exposure and reinforcement of certain behaviors or beliefs. This process helps to internalize and solidify values over time. Reading books (A) may provide knowledge but does not necessarily lead to value formation. Formal degrees (B) offer education but do not guarantee value acquisition. Meeting diverse individuals (D) can broaden perspectives but may not directly teach values through reinforcement. Continuous reinforcement, on the other hand, ensures consistent learning and reinforcement of values.
Question 7 of 9
What behaviors can be observed before a person becomes violent? (EXCEPT)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because wandering is not typically associated with violent behavior. Tense shoulders and clenched fists (B), blank stare (C), and positioned with one foot in back and an arm pulled back (D) are commonly observed behaviors before a person becomes violent. Tense shoulders and clenched fists indicate agitation, a blank stare can indicate aggression, and the specific body positioning described in D suggests readiness for physical aggression. Wandering, however, is more likely to indicate confusion or aimlessness rather than impending violence.
Question 8 of 9
The healthcare provider is developing a critical pathway for congestive heart failure (CHF). Which components are essential to include? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: - Patient outcomes are essential in a critical pathway for CHF to track progress and effectiveness of interventions. - Expected length of stay is not a core component but can be useful for resource planning. - Assigned healthcare team is important but not a core component in the critical pathway. - Medical history is relevant but not essential in the development of a critical pathway for CHF.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following is used as an indirect estimate of voluntary absenteeism?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Absence frequency. This is because absence frequency provides a measure of how often employees are absent voluntarily, serving as an indirect estimate of voluntary absenteeism. In contrast, A (Involuntary absenteeism) refers to absences that are beyond the employee's control, while B (Voluntary absenteeism) is the direct measure of voluntary absences. C (Total time lost) is a measure of the overall time lost due to both voluntary and involuntary absences, not specifically focusing on voluntary absenteeism.