What is the impact of maternal stress on fetal development?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because maternal stress can indeed lead to low birth weight, increase the risk of preterm labor, and affect brain development in the fetus. Stress hormones can interfere with the placental function, affecting the transfer of nutrients to the fetus and leading to low birth weight. Stress can also trigger early contractions, potentially resulting in preterm labor. Furthermore, maternal stress can impact fetal brain development through the release of stress hormones that can alter the development of the fetal brain structures. Therefore, all of the choices (A, B, and C) are correct in demonstrating the impact of maternal stress on fetal development.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because high-volume liver resection is typically performed in individuals with significantly compromised hepatic function to ensure adequate liver remnant. Removing 50 to 75% of the liver in a patient with metastatic colon cancer may be necessary for tumor clearance but carries risks due to potential impairment of liver function postoperatively. Choices B and C provide inaccurate information regarding the timeline and extent of liver regeneration following resection. Choice D is incorrect as removing up to 95% of the liver would lead to severe consequences, such as liver failure. Hence, option A is the most appropriate advice given the patient's situation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The Kleihauer-Betke acid-elution test is recommended in the management of hemolytic jaundice prenatally because it helps determine the amount of fetal-maternal hemorrhage, which is crucial for assessing the need for Rh immune globulin administration to prevent Rh sensitization in Rh-negative mothers carrying Rh-positive fetuses. This test helps quantify the amount of fetal red blood cells in the maternal circulation, guiding appropriate management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn. The other choices (A, C, D) do not specifically require the Kleihauer-Betke test for management and are not directly related to fetal-maternal hemorrhage assessment.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Uterine apoplexy is the sudden rupture of blood vessels in the uterus, leading to severe hemorrhage. Placental abruption is the most likely cause due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, resulting in bleeding. Incidental hemorrhage is not sudden or severe. Multiple pregnancy may increase the risk but doesn't directly cause uterine apoplexy. Placenta previa involves the placenta covering the cervix, leading to bleeding but not necessarily uterine rupture. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Iron supplementation benefits pregnancy by correcting or preventing iron deficiency anemia in the mother. Anemia can lead to various complications for the mother and baby. Iron is essential for the production of hemoglobin, which carries oxygen to tissues. Therefore, by reducing anemia, iron supplementation ensures optimal oxygen delivery to both the mother and the developing fetus. This ultimately supports healthy pregnancy outcomes. Explanation for other choices: A: Iron supplementation does not directly increase fetal blood flow. C: While iron deficiency may increase the risk of miscarriage, iron supplementation alone does not prevent miscarriages. D: Iron is not directly involved in fetal bone growth, so iron supplementation does not enhance this aspect of fetal development.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Frank breech presentation. This is because the frank breech presentation is the most common type of breech presentation, accounting for about 50-70% of all breech births. In a frank breech presentation, the baby's buttocks are presenting first with the legs extended up towards the head. This position is considered the most favorable for a vaginal delivery compared to the other types of breech presentations. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Complete breech presentation - This type of breech presentation occurs when the baby's buttocks are presenting first with the knees bent and the feet near the buttocks. It is less common than the frank breech presentation. C: Incomplete breech presentation - In this type, one or both of the baby's legs are presenting first instead of the buttocks. It is less common than the frank breech presentation. D: Footling breech presentation - This type occurs when one or both of the baby's feet

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because in obstructive shock due to a large pulmonary embolus, there is increased resistance to blood flow out of the right ventricle, leading to elevated right ventricular pressure. This causes a backup of blood into the pulmonary circulation, increasing left ventricular pressure. The increased left ventricular pressure results in decreased cardiac output as the left ventricle struggles to pump against the increased resistance. A: Elevated atrial and decreased ventricular pressures - This is incorrect as obstructive shock typically results in elevated ventricular pressures due to increased resistance. B: Elevated right-sided and decreased left-sided pressures - This is partially true, but C is a more complete answer that explains the consequences of these pressures on cardiac output. D: Elevated left ventricular pressure and decreased systemic vascular resistance - This is incorrect as obstructive shock leads to increased, not decreased, systemic vascular resistance due to the embolus obstructing blood flow.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because precipitate delivery, characterized by rapid descent and delivery of the baby, can cause cervical lacerations due to the fast and forceful passage of the baby through the birth canal. This can result in tearing of the cervical tissue. Choice A is incorrect because uterine atony is not typically associated with precipitate delivery. Choice B is incorrect as puerperal sepsis is not directly related to the speed of delivery. Choice C is incorrect as the occurrence of precipitate delivery does not guarantee reduced risk of recurrence with prenatal monitoring.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Non-pharmacological methods of pain relief. Homeopathy, music therapy, and hydrotherapy are all non-pharmacological approaches that do not involve the use of medication to manage pain. They focus on alternative techniques to alleviate pain, such as using natural remedies, music, or water-based therapies. These methods aim to address pain through holistic approaches that do not rely on traditional pharmaceutical interventions. A: Systemic methods of pain relief typically involve medications that affect the entire body, such as opioids. B: Regional analgesia methods target specific areas for pain relief, like nerve blocks. C: Inhalational analgesia involves administering pain relief medications through inhalation, such as nitrous oxide. In summary, the other choices are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the non-pharmacological nature of homeopathy, music therapy, and hydrotherapy in managing pain.