ATI RN
Midwifery Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the impact of maternal stress on fetal development?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because maternal stress can indeed lead to low birth weight, increase the risk of preterm labor, and affect brain development in the fetus. Stress hormones can interfere with the placental function, affecting the transfer of nutrients to the fetus and leading to low birth weight. Stress can also trigger early contractions, potentially resulting in preterm labor. Furthermore, maternal stress can impact fetal brain development through the release of stress hormones that can alter the development of the fetal brain structures. Therefore, all of the choices (A, B, and C) are correct in demonstrating the impact of maternal stress on fetal development.
Question 2 of 9
Excessive bleeding from the genital tract after the first 24 hours, but within the puerperium period, is referred to as
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Secondary postpartum haemorrhage. This term refers to excessive bleeding from the genital tract after the first 24 hours but within the puerperium period (6 weeks postpartum). A: Primary postpartum haemorrhage occurs within the first 24 hours after delivery. B: Tertiary postpartum haemorrhage occurs more than 6 weeks postpartum. D: Incidental postpartum haemorrhage is not a recognized medical term for postpartum bleeding.
Question 3 of 9
The correct statement about malaria prophylaxis during pregnancy is that
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Sulfadoxine Pyrimethamine is recommended for pregnant women in malaria endemic areas due to its safety and efficacy in preventing malaria during pregnancy. Step 2: Pregnant women are at higher risk of severe complications from malaria, making prophylaxis crucial. Step 3: The World Health Organization recommends intermittent preventive treatment with Sulfadoxine Pyrimethamine for pregnant women in malaria-endemic areas. Step 4: Option A aligns with these guidelines, making it the correct choice. Summary: Option B is incorrect because pregnant women are considered at risk regardless of testing. Option C is incorrect as the timing of administration is not based on quickening. Option D is incorrect as the recommended number of doses may vary based on guidelines.
Question 4 of 9
Homeopathy, music therapy, and hydrotherapy are among the
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Non-pharmacological methods of pain relief. Homeopathy, music therapy, and hydrotherapy are all non-pharmacological approaches that do not involve the use of medication to manage pain. They focus on alternative techniques to alleviate pain, such as using natural remedies, music, or water-based therapies. These methods aim to address pain through holistic approaches that do not rely on traditional pharmaceutical interventions. A: Systemic methods of pain relief typically involve medications that affect the entire body, such as opioids. B: Regional analgesia methods target specific areas for pain relief, like nerve blocks. C: Inhalational analgesia involves administering pain relief medications through inhalation, such as nitrous oxide. In summary, the other choices are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the non-pharmacological nature of homeopathy, music therapy, and hydrotherapy in managing pain.
Question 5 of 9
Which one of the following is an endogenous cause of puerperal sepsis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Escherichia coli. Puerperal sepsis is often caused by endogenous bacteria from the mother's own flora. E. coli is a common endogenous bacteria found in the gastrointestinal tract and can cause infection during childbirth. Chlamydia trachomatis is a sexually transmitted infection, not typically associated with puerperal sepsis. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not puerperal sepsis. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an environmental pathogen, not typically an endogenous cause of puerperal sepsis.
Question 6 of 9
An oedematous swelling on the newborn’s scalp is indicative of
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Caput succedaneum. This swelling is a result of pressure during birth and typically resolves on its own. Subgaleal hemorrhage involves bleeding into the potential space between the periosteum and skull, presenting as a boggy mass. Intracranial injury refers to damage within the skull, often due to trauma. Neonatal cephalhematoma is a subperiosteal collection of blood, causing a localized swelling. Caput succedaneum is the most likely diagnosis based on the description provided.
Question 7 of 9
K. W. is a 50-year-old woman who presents for surgical resection of the liver for treatment of metastatic colon cancer. Preoperatively, the surgeon tells her that he is planning to remove 50 to 75 of her liver. The patient is concerned that she will not be able to recover normal liver function with that much removed. The AGACNP counsels her that
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because high-volume liver resection is typically performed in individuals with significantly compromised hepatic function to ensure adequate liver remnant. Removing 50 to 75% of the liver in a patient with metastatic colon cancer may be necessary for tumor clearance but carries risks due to potential impairment of liver function postoperatively. Choices B and C provide inaccurate information regarding the timeline and extent of liver regeneration following resection. Choice D is incorrect as removing up to 95% of the liver would lead to severe consequences, such as liver failure. Hence, option A is the most appropriate advice given the patient's situation.
Question 8 of 9
Five (5) major factors predisposed to uterine rupture:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): 1. Previous C-section and uterine scars weaken the uterine wall. 2. Fetal macrosomia (large baby) increases pressure on the uterus. 3. Trauma can cause direct injury to the uterus. 4. Prolonged labor can lead to uterine overdistension and fatigue, increasing rupture risk. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Malpresentation, premature rupture of membranes, obesity, malnutrition, anemia are not direct factors for uterine rupture. C: Uterine fibroids, excessive weight gain, smoking, poor prenatal care can contribute to complications but not primary causes of uterine rupture. D: Not all factors in choices B and C are predisposing factors for uterine rupture, making this choice incorrect.
Question 9 of 9
The most common cause of immediate postpartum haemorrhage is uterine atony, not trauma to the genital tract.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Uterine atony is the most common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage due to inadequate uterine contraction to control bleeding. This is supported by research and clinical evidence. Trauma to the genital tract is a less common cause and usually leads to delayed hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect as uterine atony is a well-documented primary cause. Choice C is incorrect as uterine atony is consistently the leading cause. Choice D is incorrect as the cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage is clear, with uterine atony being the most common culprit.