What is the function of the central sulcus?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The central sulcus separates the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe. This boundary is crucial for the organization of motor and sensory functions in the brain. The frontal lobe is responsible for higher cognitive functions and motor activities, while the parietal lobe processes sensory information such as touch and spatial awareness. Therefore, the central sulcus plays a key role in coordinating motor and sensory functions. Incorrect Choices: A: The temporal and occipital lobes are separated by the lateral sulcus, not the central sulcus. C: Complex motor activities are primarily controlled by the frontal lobe, not the central sulcus. D: Alertness to the environment is regulated by brainstem structures and the reticular activating system, not the central sulcus.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Basal ganglia. The basal ganglia is involved in voluntary motor movements by helping to initiate and control movement. It plays a key role in regulating motor planning, coordination, and execution. The prefrontal cortex, choice B, is primarily responsible for higher cognitive functions such as decision-making and impulse control, not voluntary motor movements. The amygdala, choice C, is involved in emotional processing and memory, not motor movements. The limbic system, choice D, is a collection of brain structures involved in emotions, memory, and motivation, but not specifically in voluntary motor movements.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a poor metabolizer is a patient who processes medications slowly, leading to higher drug levels in the blood. This can increase the risk of toxicity due to the accumulation of the drug. Choice B is a duplicate of A. Choice C is incorrect as poor metabolizers actually have an increased risk of side effects and adverse reactions due to the higher drug levels. Choice D is too extreme and not universally applicable as poor metabolizers may still be prescribed antidepressants with adjusted dosages.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: SNRI. SNRIs (Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors) are the best medication class for elevated norepinephrine levels as they inhibit the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine, thus increasing their levels in the brain. This helps regulate the neurotransmitter imbalance associated with elevated norepinephrine. A: SSRIs only target serotonin, not norepinephrine. B: MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of norepinephrine but are less commonly used due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects. D: Benzodiazepines are not effective in directly targeting norepinephrine levels.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Elevated prolactin levels are a common side effect of first-generation antipsychotics, leading to sexual dysfunction and nipple discharge. Ordering a blood test to examine prolactin levels is appropriate to monitor for this side effect. Option B is incorrect as sexual dysfunction and nipple discharge are not normal responses to treatment. Option C is irrelevant as OTC supplements are not typically related to these symptoms. Option D is incorrect as discontinuing medication without proper evaluation and management of side effects can worsen the patient's condition.