ATI RN
Basic Nursing Care Needs of the Patient PPT Questions
Question 1 of 4
What is the function of the Calgary Cambridge consultation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Helps to build a therapeutic relationship and provide structure. The Calgary Cambridge consultation model is widely recognized in healthcare for its emphasis on effective communication between healthcare professionals and patients. Choosing option A as the correct answer is justified as this model indeed focuses on building a therapeutic relationship. By establishing rapport and trust, healthcare providers can create a conducive environment for open dialogue, which is essential for understanding the patient's needs and concerns. Option B is incorrect because the Calgary Cambridge model is not about integrating the medical model into the consultation; instead, it emphasizes a patient-centered approach that values the patient's perspective and experiences. Option C is incorrect as the Calgary Cambridge consultation does not aim to shorten the consultation. On the contrary, it promotes a thorough and comprehensive interaction between the healthcare provider and the patient to address all relevant aspects of care. Option D is incorrect because the model does not seek to prevent patients from sharing information. In fact, it encourages patients to express their thoughts and feelings openly to facilitate a deeper understanding of their healthcare needs. In an educational context, understanding the Calgary Cambridge consultation model is crucial for nursing students as it equips them with the necessary skills to engage effectively with patients, develop a therapeutic relationship, and provide patient-centered care. By mastering this model, students can enhance their communication abilities, improve patient outcomes, and promote a holistic approach to healthcare delivery.
Question 2 of 4
What is the main advantage of cutaneous stimulation in managing pain:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The main advantage of cutaneous stimulation in managing pain, as indicated by option C, is that it gives the client control over their pain syndrome. This is the correct answer because cutaneous stimulation techniques such as massage, heat therapy, or transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) allow patients to actively participate in their pain management. By using these methods, patients can choose when and how to apply the stimulation, providing a sense of empowerment and control over their pain experience. Option A, "Costs less," is incorrect because the cost factor is not the primary advantage of cutaneous stimulation in pain management. While it is true that some cutaneous stimulation techniques may be cost-effective, the main benefit lies in the patient's ability to regulate their pain. Option B, "Restricts movement and decreases pain," is incorrect as it does not accurately reflect the purpose of cutaneous stimulation. Cutaneous stimulation techniques are meant to enhance movement and function by alleviating pain, rather than restricting movement. Option D, "Allows the family to visit the patient at home," is also incorrect as it does not relate to the advantages of cutaneous stimulation in managing pain. While family support is important in a patient's overall care, it is not a direct benefit of cutaneous stimulation. From an educational perspective, understanding the rationale behind the correct answer reinforces the importance of patient-centered care and active involvement in pain management. Educating healthcare professionals about the benefits of empowering patients to control their pain can lead to improved patient outcomes and satisfaction. It also highlights the holistic approach to pain management, where patient preferences and autonomy are valued in the care process.
Question 3 of 4
Which of the following strategies BEST prevents ventricular dysrhythmias in a patient undergoing extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of a patient undergoing extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL), the best strategy to prevent ventricular dysrhythmias is ECG synchronization. This is because ECG synchronization ensures that the shock waves are delivered during the relative refractory period of the cardiac cycle, minimizing the potential for inducing dysrhythmias. Option A, beta-adrenergic blockade, is not the best choice in this scenario because while beta-blockers can help manage certain dysrhythmias, they are not specifically tailored to prevent dysrhythmias induced by ESWL. Option C, epidural blockade to T4, is unrelated to the prevention of ventricular dysrhythmias during ESWL. Epidural blockade is primarily used for pain management and does not directly impact cardiac dysrhythmias. Option D, calcium channel blockade, is also not the most appropriate choice in this situation. While calcium channel blockers have a role in managing certain dysrhythmias, they do not target the specific mechanism of dysrhythmias induced by ESWL. In an educational context, it is crucial for healthcare providers to understand the unique considerations and strategies for preventing complications in patients undergoing specialized procedures like ESWL. Understanding the rationale behind ECG synchronization in this context can enhance patient safety and outcomes during lithotripsy procedures. This knowledge empowers nurses to provide optimal care and mitigate potential risks associated with the procedure.
Question 4 of 4
Which of the following characteristics of nitrous oxide MOST likely explains why its alveolar and inspired concentrations equilibrate more rapidly than those of desflurane?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Delivery at a higher inspired concentration. Nitrous oxide is more likely to equilibrate rapidly compared to desflurane because it is often delivered at higher inspired concentrations, typically around 70%. This higher concentration creates a greater partial pressure gradient between the alveoli and the inspired gas, leading to faster equilibration. Option B) Creation of a second gas effect is incorrect because this phenomenon occurs when a second gas is added to the breathing circuit, leading to a more rapid rise in the alveolar concentration of the second gas. This is not a characteristic specific to nitrous oxide compared to desflurane. Option C) Lower blood gas solubility is not the primary reason for the rapid equilibration of nitrous oxide. While lower blood gas solubility can contribute to faster onset and offset of action, in this context, the delivery concentration plays a more significant role. Option D) Higher potency is also not the main reason for the rapid equilibration of nitrous oxide. Potency refers to the concentration needed to produce a certain effect, but in terms of equilibration speed, the inspired concentration is the key factor. In an educational context, understanding the pharmacokinetic properties of anesthetic gases is crucial for safe and effective patient care. By grasping how factors like delivery concentration impact equilibration, nurses can optimize patient outcomes and manage anesthesia more efficiently.