ATI RN
Fundamentals Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the focus of a diagnostic statement for a collaborative problem?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The potential complication. In a collaborative problem, the focus of a diagnostic statement should be on identifying potential complications that may arise due to the client's health issue. This is important for developing effective interventions to prevent or manage these complications. Choice A focuses on the client's problem itself, not on potential complications. Choice C is related to nursing diagnosis, not collaborative problems. Choice D refers to medical diagnosis, which is different from collaborative problems involving nursing and other healthcare disciplines. Therefore, B is the correct focus for a diagnostic statement in a collaborative problem scenario.
Question 2 of 9
To provide safe care for Mrs. Zeno, it is important for the nurse to check the bedside for the presence of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A hypothermia blanket. This is important because hypothermia can lead to complications such as shivering, increased risk of infection, and altered drug metabolism. Checking for the hypothermia blanket ensures Mrs. Zeno's temperature is regulated, promoting safety. A: A tracheostomy set is not directly related to Mrs. Zeno's immediate safety unless she has a tracheostomy in place. C: An intravenous set-up is important for administering medications, fluids, or blood products, but it is not directly related to Mrs. Zeno's safety at the bedside. D: A syringe and edrophonium HCl(Tensilon) is specific to a diagnostic test for myasthenia gravis, which may not be relevant to Mrs. Zeno's current condition or safety.
Question 3 of 9
There are several risk factors with developing cancer. The following are risk factors of cancer, except:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because ordinal petition in the family is not a recognized risk factor for developing cancer. Age is a well-known risk factor as cancer incidence increases with age. Race can also influence cancer risk due to genetic and environmental factors. Lifestyle choices such as smoking, diet, and physical activity can significantly impact the likelihood of developing cancer. In contrast, ordinal petition in the family does not have a direct association with cancer risk.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the ff should qualify as an abnormal result in a Romberg test?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. In a Romberg test, the patient stands with feet together and eyes closed to assess proprioception. 2. Swaying, losing balance, or arm drifting indicates impaired proprioception, suggesting a positive Romberg sign, which is abnormal. 3. Hypotension (choice A) is not directly related to the Romberg test. 4. Sneezing and wheezing (choice C) are unrelated to the test. 5. Excessive cerumen in the outer ear (choice D) does not affect proprioception. Summary: Choice B is correct as it directly relates to impaired proprioception, which is abnormal in a Romberg test. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are unrelated to the purpose of the test.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse needs to assess a client who is undergoing urinary diversion. Which of the ff assessment is essential for the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a client's medical history of allergy to iodine or seafood is crucial for urinary diversion assessment to prevent potential adverse reactions during procedures involving contrast media or seafood-based medications. It is essential to ensure the client's safety and avoid any allergic reactions. Choice A is incorrect because assessing sexual function is not directly related to urinary diversion assessment. Choice C is also incorrect as urinary diversion does not typically affect nervous control. Choice D is irrelevant to the assessment of a client undergoing urinary diversion.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is reviewing a patient’s plan of care, which includes the nursing diagnostic statement, Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate. Which part of the diagnostic statement does the nurse need to revise?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Collaborative problem. In the given diagnostic statement, "Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate," the nurse needs to revise the mention of collaborative problem. The collaborative problem is a health issue that requires the expertise of multiple healthcare providers, whereas the statement provided focuses on a nursing diagnosis related to physical mobility impairment. The etiology (cause), nursing diagnosis, and defining characteristic are all relevant to the nursing diagnostic statement and do not need revision. The collaborative problem aspect is not appropriate in this context as it does not fit the criteria for a collaborative problem.
Question 7 of 9
A patient asks the nurse what is CYSTOCLYSIS? The best explanation would be:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: B is correct because cystoclisis is the process of maintaining patency of a foley catheter by irrigating it with a sterile solution. This prevents blockages and promotes proper drainage. A, C, and D are incorrect because cystoclisis is not related to increasing bladder atony, removing blood clots, or altering urine specific gravity.
Question 8 of 9
The client with epilepsy is taking the prescribed dose of phenytoin (Dilantin) to control seizures. Results of a phenytoin blood level study reveal a level of 35 mcg/ml. Which of the following symptoms would be expected as a result of this laboratory result?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nystagmus. A phenytoin blood level of 35 mcg/ml is above the therapeutic range (usually 10-20 mcg/ml). Excessive levels can lead to symptoms such as nystagmus, which is an involuntary eye movement commonly seen with phenytoin toxicity. Nystagmus is a known side effect of phenytoin overdose. Choices B and C are incorrect because a level of 35 mcg/ml is not within the normal therapeutic range, so symptoms would be expected. Choice D, Slurred speech, is not typically associated with phenytoin toxicity.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate when a patient returns to his or her room after a bronchoscopy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D - Check for a gag reflex before allowing the patient to drink. This is important after a bronchoscopy to prevent aspiration. Step 1: Assessing gag reflex ensures the patient can protect their airway. Step 2: Aspiration risk is high post-bronchoscopy due to sedation and possible throat numbness. Step 3: Allowing fluids without confirming gag reflex can lead to aspiration pneumonia. Other choices are incorrect. A: Ordering a meal immediately is inappropriate after NPO period. B: Encouraging fluids without assessing gag reflex may lead to aspiration. C: Monitoring consciousness is important but not directly related to post-bronchoscopy care.