ATI RN
Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the first step in the management of a client with acute renal failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct first step in managing a client with acute renal failure is to administer IV fluids (Choice A). This is crucial to ensure adequate hydration and maintain renal perfusion. By administering IV fluids, you can help improve kidney function and prevent further damage. Monitoring urine output (Choice B) is important but comes after addressing the fluid balance with IV fluids. Performing a CT scan (Choice C) is not typically the initial step in managing acute renal failure as it does not directly impact the patient's immediate condition. Administering diuretics (Choice D) can worsen the condition by further reducing kidney function, so it is not the recommended first step.
Question 2 of 9
Which serotonin antagonist can be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: ondansetron (Zofran). Ondansetron is a selective serotonin receptor antagonist that effectively targets the serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone to relieve nausea and vomiting. It is commonly used in chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. A: Metoclopramide is a dopamine receptor antagonist and primarily used for gastrointestinal motility disorders, not specifically for nausea relief. C: Hydroxyzine is an antihistamine with sedative properties, primarily used for anxiety and itching, not specifically for nausea relief. D: Prochlorperazine is a dopamine receptor antagonist primarily used for treating psychotic disorders, not specifically for nausea relief. In summary, ondansetron is the correct choice as it targets serotonin receptors specifically for relieving nausea and vomiting, whereas the other options focus on different mechanisms of action.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with diabetes who is experiencing hypoglycemia. The nurse should prioritize which of the following actions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide a source of fast-acting carbohydrate. In hypoglycemia, the priority is to raise blood glucose levels quickly to prevent complications like seizures or loss of consciousness. Fast-acting carbs like juice or glucose tablets are the first-line treatment. Administering insulin (choice A) would lower blood sugar further. Administering an oral hypoglycemic agent (choice C) takes time to work and is not suitable for emergencies. Monitoring blood pressure (choice D) is important but not the priority in this situation.
Question 4 of 9
What is the most appropriate intervention for a client with acute renal failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer IV fluids. In acute renal failure, maintaining adequate hydration is crucial to support kidney function and prevent further damage. IV fluids help improve renal perfusion and promote urine output. Hemodialysis may be necessary in severe cases but initial intervention is fluid resuscitation. Administering pain relief or morphine is not the priority in acute renal failure as addressing hydration status takes precedence over pain management.
Question 5 of 9
A patient's vision is recorded as 20/80 in each eye. The nurse recognizes that this finding indicates:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: poor vision. In the 20/80 visual acuity notation, 20 represents the test distance in feet, and 80 represents the line on the eye chart that the patient can read. Therefore, a person with 20/80 vision can only see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 80 feet. This indicates poor vision as the patient's visual acuity is significantly below normal. Summary: - Choice B (acute vision) is incorrect as 20/80 vision indicates poor vision, not exceptional sharpness. - Choice C (normal vision) is incorrect as 20/80 vision is below normal range. - Choice D (presbyopia) is incorrect as presbyopia is a condition related to aging and difficulty focusing on close objects, not specifically indicated by 20/80 vision.
Question 6 of 9
What is the most important assessment for a client with diabetes and newly diagnosed hypertension?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Perform a comprehensive physical exam. This is important because it helps assess the overall health status of the client, including cardiovascular risk factors that can affect both diabetes and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose (A) is important for diabetes management but not specific to newly diagnosed hypertension. Checking for protein in the urine (C) is important for assessing kidney function in diabetes, but not the most crucial assessment for newly diagnosed hypertension. Assessing for urinary retention (D) is not directly related to managing diabetes and hypertension.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following assessment findings is most consistent with clubbing of the fingernails?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clubbing of the fingernails is characterized by an increased angle between the nail base and the nail plate (usually 180 degrees or greater) and a spongy texture at the nail base. This is due to underlying tissue changes associated with conditions like lung disease. Choice D is correct as it accurately describes the characteristic findings of clubbing. Choices A, B, and C do not align with clubbing features. Choice A describes tenderness and firmness, not sponginess and increased angle. Choice B mentions a convex profile and ridges, which are not specific to clubbing. Choice C includes an angle of 150 degrees, which is less than the typical angle seen in clubbing.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following statements about the eustachian tube is true?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: It helps equalize air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane. The eustachian tube connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx, allowing for pressure equalization. During activities like swallowing or yawning, the tube opens to allow air to flow in or out, maintaining equal pressure. This function is crucial for proper hearing and preventing discomfort or damage to the tympanic membrane. Choice A is incorrect as cerumen is produced by ceruminous glands in the ear canal, not the eustachian tube. Choice B is incorrect as the eustachian tube normally remains closed and opens only intermittently during specific actions. Choice C is incorrect as the eustachian tube does not connect the middle and outer ear; it connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx.
Question 9 of 9
The mother of a 2-year-old is concerned about tympanostomy tubes that are going to be inserted in her son's ears. Which of the following would the nurse include in the teaching plan?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer D: Tympanostomy tubes are inserted into the eardrum to help drain fluid from the middle ear, relieve pressure, and prevent infections. This is important in children who have recurrent ear infections or fluid buildup. By allowing drainage, the tubes help improve hearing and reduce the risk of complications. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A) Incorrect - Tympanostomy tubes are placed in the middle ear, not the inner ear. B) Incorrect - Tympanostomy tubes are used for conductive hearing loss, not sensorineural loss. C) Incorrect - Tympanostomy tubes are not permanently inserted and are usually removed after a period of time once they are no longer needed.