ATI RN
Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the first step in the management of a client with acute renal failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct first step in managing a client with acute renal failure is to administer IV fluids (Choice A). This is crucial to ensure adequate hydration and maintain renal perfusion. By administering IV fluids, you can help improve kidney function and prevent further damage. Monitoring urine output (Choice B) is important but comes after addressing the fluid balance with IV fluids. Performing a CT scan (Choice C) is not typically the initial step in managing acute renal failure as it does not directly impact the patient's immediate condition. Administering diuretics (Choice D) can worsen the condition by further reducing kidney function, so it is not the recommended first step.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is an example of a symptom?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain. A symptom is a subjective indication of a condition experienced by the patient. Chest pain is a subjective sensation that a patient reports, making it a symptom. Clammy skin, serum potassium level, and temperature are all objective signs or measurements, not subjective experiences reported by the patient. Symptoms are what the patient feels or experiences, while signs are objective findings that can be measured or observed by healthcare providers.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient with hypertension about dietary modifications. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates proper understanding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: Limiting alcohol intake reduces blood pressure. Reducing sodium intake also helps manage hypertension. Alcohol can increase blood pressure, while sodium can lead to fluid retention. The patient's statement shows understanding of the importance of both factors in managing hypertension. Other Choices: A: Increasing sodium intake worsens fluid retention and hypertension. C: Processed foods are often high in sodium and unhealthy fats, worsening hypertension. D: Reducing exercise can lead to weight gain and increased blood pressure, contrary to managing hypertension.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is teaching parents of a newborn about feeding their infant. Which instruction should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A: 1. Using the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles is safe because it ensures even heating without creating hot spots that could burn the baby's mouth. 2. This method helps to preserve the nutrients in the breast milk or formula. 3. It is important to warm the bottle to body temperature to mimic the natural feel of breast milk for the baby's comfort. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Feeding the baby partially used bottles after 24 hours can increase the risk of bacterial contamination and foodborne illness. C: Mixing two parts water and one part concentrate for formula concentrate is incorrect as it may dilute the formula, leading to inadequate nutrition for the baby. D: Adding new formula to partially used bottles can alter the balance of nutrients and increase the risk of contamination, affecting the baby's health.
Question 5 of 9
What is the primary goal for a client with newly diagnosed diabetes?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal for a client with newly diagnosed diabetes is to monitor their blood glucose levels (Answer B). This is essential to understand how their body responds to different foods, activities, and medications. Monitoring blood glucose levels helps in determining the effectiveness of the treatment plan and making necessary adjustments. Teaching the client how to manage their blood glucose levels (Answer A) is important, but monitoring comes first. Monitoring urine output (Answer C) is not as relevant for diabetes management. Administering insulin (Answer D) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the primary goal initially.
Question 6 of 9
In using the ophthalmoscope to assess a patient's eyes, the nurse notes a red glow in the patient's pupils. On the basis of this finding, the nurse would:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): 1. Red glow in pupils indicates a normal reflection off the inner retina known as the red reflex. 2. The red reflex helps to visualize the internal structures of the eye, including the retina. 3. This finding is expected during an ophthalmoscopic examination. 4. No abnormality is suggested by the presence of a red glow in the pupils. Summary of Other Choices: A: Incorrect. Red glow does not indicate an opacity in the lens or cornea. B: Incorrect. Checking the light source is unnecessary as red glow is a normal finding. D: Incorrect. Referral is not needed as red reflex is a normal part of an ophthalmoscopic exam.
Question 7 of 9
A patient is at the clinic because he has recently noticed that the left side of his mouth is paralyzed. He states that he cannot raise his eyebrow or whistle. The nurse suspects that he has:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bell's palsy. Bell's palsy is characterized by sudden weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles, resulting in drooping of the face, inability to raise the eyebrow or close the eye, and difficulty with facial expressions and functions like whistling. In this case, the patient's symptoms of left-sided facial paralysis point towards Bell's palsy as the likely diagnosis. Cushing's syndrome (A) is a hormonal disorder, Parkinson's syndrome (B) is a neurodegenerative disorder affecting movement, and a cerebrovascular accident (D) typically presents with more generalized neurological deficits rather than isolated facial paralysis.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who is post-operative following abdominal surgery. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Atelectasis and pneumonia. Following abdominal surgery, patients are at risk for atelectasis (lung collapse) due to shallow breathing and pneumonia due to impaired lung function. A nurse should monitor for signs such as decreased oxygen saturation, increased respiratory rate, and crackles on auscultation. Wound infection (A) is a common post-operative complication but not specific to abdominal surgery. Hyperglycemia (B) may occur due to stress response but is not directly related to abdominal surgery. Dehydration (C) is a concern post-operatively, but respiratory complications like atelectasis and pneumonia are higher priority due to potential life-threatening consequences.
Question 9 of 9
Which value should a nurse monitor closely when a client is on TPN?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Glucose. Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) is a form of nutrition delivered directly into the bloodstream, providing all essential nutrients including glucose. Monitoring glucose levels is crucial to prevent hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Calcium (A), Magnesium (B), and Cholesterol (D) are not typically monitored closely when a client is on TPN, as they are not directly impacted by TPN administration. Calcium and Magnesium levels are usually monitored for other conditions, and Cholesterol levels are not typically affected by TPN administration.