ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the first medication to give to a patient with an allergic reaction causing wheezing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol 3 ml via nebulizer. Albuterol is a fast-acting bronchodilator that helps relieve wheezing by relaxing the muscles in the airways, making it the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by bronchospasms in allergic reactions. Methylprednisolone (Choice B) is a corticosteroid used for its anti-inflammatory properties and is typically given after bronchodilators. Cromolyn (Choice C) is a mast cell stabilizer that is used for the prevention of asthma symptoms, not for immediate relief. Aminophylline (Choice D) is a bronchodilator that is less commonly used nowadays due to its narrow therapeutic window and potential for toxicity.
Question 2 of 9
What dietary modifications are recommended for a patient with pre-dialysis kidney disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Patients with pre-dialysis kidney disease should limit phosphorus intake to prevent further kidney damage. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake is not recommended in pre-dialysis kidney disease. Choice C is incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation in advanced kidney disease, not pre-dialysis. Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day is not a specific dietary modification for pre-dialysis kidney disease.
Question 3 of 9
What is the priority action if a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During enema administration, if a patient experiences abdominal cramping, the priority action is to lower the height of the solution container. This adjustment can help relieve abdominal cramping by reducing the flow rate of the enema, making it more comfortable for the patient. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) can exacerbate the cramping. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice C) may be necessary in some cases of severe discomfort or complications, but adjusting the height of the solution container should be the initial response. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice D) may not address the immediate need to alleviate the cramping.
Question 4 of 9
What intervention is needed when continuous bubbling is seen in the chest tube water seal chamber?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the appropriate intervention is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This action can help resolve an air leak, which is often the cause of continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. Clamping the chest tube (choice B) is not recommended as it can lead to a dangerous increase in pressure within the chest. Replacing the chest tube (choice C) is not the initial intervention unless there are other indications to do so. Simply monitoring the chest tube (choice D) without taking corrective action will not address the underlying issue of the air leak causing continuous bubbling.
Question 5 of 9
What are the manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (IICP) include restlessness, confusion, and irritability. These symptoms are a result of the brain being under pressure inside the skull. Severe nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are more commonly associated with increased intracranial pressure in children. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of increased intracranial pressure; instead, hypertension and bradycardia may be seen in Cushing's reflex, which is a late sign of increased IICP. Decreased heart rate and altered pupil response (Choice D) are also not primary manifestations of increased intracranial pressure, although altered pupil response, like a non-reactive or dilated pupil, can be seen in some cases.
Question 6 of 9
What lab value should be prioritized for a patient with HIV?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 should be prioritized for a patient with HIV. This value is crucial as it indicates severe immunocompromise in HIV-infected individuals. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count helps assess the status of the immune system and guides treatment decisions. Serum albumin levels (choice B) may reflect the patient's nutritional status and overall health but are not as specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice C) and hemoglobin levels (choice D) can be affected by various factors and are not as directly linked to HIV management as the CD4 T-cell count in this context.
Question 7 of 9
What intervention is required when continuous bubbling is seen in the chest tube water seal chamber?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, tightening the connections of the chest tube system is the appropriate intervention. This action can often resolve an air leak, which is the common cause of continuous bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or replacing it is not recommended as the first-line intervention because it may lead to complications or unnecessary tube changes. Continuing to monitor the chest tube without addressing the air leak would delay necessary corrective action, potentially causing respiratory compromise in the patient. Therefore, tightening the connections of the chest tube system is the most suitable initial step to manage continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
Question 8 of 9
What is the priority dietary modification for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. In patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, restricting phosphorus intake is crucial to manage their condition. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders, which are common in kidney disease. Choice B, increasing potassium intake, is not the priority and can be harmful as kidney disease often leads to hyperkalemia. Choice C, eating three large meals per day, is not recommended as smaller, frequent meals are usually better tolerated. Choice D, restricting protein intake to 1 g/kg/day, is important in later stages of kidney disease but is not the priority at the pre-dialysis stage.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is asking for dietary recommendations. What should the nurse suggest?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, it is crucial to limit phosphorus intake to 700mg/day to manage their condition. High phosphorus levels can lead to complications such as bone and heart problems. Limiting protein intake is essential in later stages of kidney disease, particularly in dialysis patients to reduce the buildup of waste products. While limiting potassium and restricting sodium intake are also important in kidney disease management, the priority for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to control phosphorus levels.