What is the first intervention when a patient has difficulty breathing post-surgery?

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ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 9

What is the first intervention when a patient has difficulty breathing post-surgery?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the initial intervention for a patient experiencing breathing difficulties post-surgery. Providing oxygen helps improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress. Repositioning the patient, checking oxygen saturation, and elevating the head of the bed are important interventions but administering oxygen takes precedence in addressing hypoxia and respiratory compromise.

Question 2 of 9

How should a healthcare professional assess a patient for dehydration?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Checking for skin turgor is a reliable method to assess dehydration in patients. Skin turgor refers to the skin's elasticity and hydration status. When a healthcare professional gently pinches the skin on the back of the patient's hand or forearm, dehydration is indicated by the skin not snapping back immediately. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is important but is more indicative of cardiovascular status rather than dehydration specifically. Checking for dry mucous membranes (choice C) can be a sign of dehydration, but skin turgor is a more direct assessment. Monitoring urine output (choice D) is also essential but may not provide immediate feedback on hydration status as skin turgor does.

Question 3 of 9

A client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis should be placed in which type of room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Clients diagnosed with tuberculosis should be placed in a negative pressure room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens. Option A is incorrect because administering isoniazid is a treatment for tuberculosis, not a preventive measure related to infection control. Option B is incorrect as droplet isolation is used for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, not airborne pathogens like tuberculosis. Option C is incorrect as wearing a surgical mask is not sufficient to prevent the spread of tuberculosis in healthcare settings; placing the client in a negative pressure room is the most effective measure.

Question 4 of 9

A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm³ is elevated and may indicate infection, which should be reported. High WBC count is a sign of inflammation or infection, and in a postoperative client, it can be indicative of surgical site infection or another complication. Urinary output, serosanguineous wound drainage, and a heart rate of 94/min are all within normal ranges for a client post cholecystectomy and do not raise immediate concerns for infection or complications.

Question 5 of 9

A nurse is observing bonding between the client and her newborn. Which of the following actions by the client requires the nurse to intervene?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because viewing the newborn's actions as uncooperative may indicate the client is struggling to bond, requiring intervention. Choices A, B, and C do not raise concerns about the bonding process between the client and the newborn. Holding the newborn in an en face position is a positive interaction. Asking the father to change the newborn's diaper involves family participation in care. Requesting the nurse to take the newborn to the nursery so she can rest is a valid request for maternal self-care.

Question 6 of 9

What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

Question 7 of 9

When digitally evacuating stool from a client with a fecal impaction, what action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when digitally evacuating stool from a client with a fecal impaction is to insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall. This technique helps prevent trauma to the client. Choice B is incorrect because stimulating peristalsis is not the appropriate action for digitally evacuating stool. Choice C is incorrect as applying pressure to the abdomen can be uncomfortable and ineffective. Choice D is also incorrect because increasing fluid intake is not directly related to the digital evacuation procedure.

Question 8 of 9

A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Regular exercise is an essential component in managing hypertension. Exercising for at least 30 minutes a day, at least 5 days a week, can help control blood pressure. Checking blood pressure regularly (choice A) is important, but not as indicative of understanding the teaching as the commitment to regular exercise. Avoiding foods high in potassium (choice B) is not a typical recommendation for managing hypertension. Taking medication only when feeling dizzy (choice D) is incorrect and potentially dangerous; medications should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider.

Question 9 of 9

A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare provider to report?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26/min is a sign of respiratory distress and should be reported promptly in a client with pneumonia. Rapid breathing can indicate inadequate oxygenation and ventilation, which may lead to respiratory failure. Crackles in the lung bases are common in pneumonia but may not be as urgent as a high respiratory rate. A blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg is slightly low but may not be immediately life-threatening. A heart rate of 86/min is within the normal range for an adult and is not the most critical finding to report.

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