What is the first action a healthcare provider should take for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome?

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ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Questions

Question 1 of 9

What is the first action a healthcare provider should take for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the initial priority action for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, reduce chest pain, and improve blood flow to the heart muscle. This helps in relieving symptoms and preventing further damage to the heart. Establishing IV access, auscultating heart sounds, and obtaining cardiac enzymes are important steps in the assessment and management of acute coronary syndrome but are not the first actions to be taken. IV access may be needed for administering medications or fluids, auscultating heart sounds helps in assessing the heart's function, and obtaining cardiac enzymes aids in diagnosing a heart attack.

Question 2 of 9

What symptoms are expected in a patient with compartment syndrome?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with compartment syndrome, the key symptoms include unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These symptoms indicate reduced circulation in the affected compartment. Choice B is incorrect as localized swelling and numbness are not typically associated with compartment syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as fever and infection are not primary symptoms of compartment syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as weakness and fatigue are not typically seen in compartment syndrome.

Question 3 of 9

What are the early signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Restlessness, irritability, and confusion are early signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP). These signs indicate that the brain is starting to experience pressure, often due to conditions such as trauma, tumors, or hemorrhage. Sudden onset of seizures (choice B) is not typically an early sign of IICP but can occur later as the pressure increases. Decreased heart rate and pupillary response (choice C) are more indicative of late-stage IICP as the brainstem becomes compromised. Loss of consciousness (choice D) is a late sign of IICP when the pressure has significantly increased and is causing significant brain dysfunction.

Question 4 of 9

What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with hypokalemia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common symptom of hypokalemia and should be closely monitored in affected patients. Hypokalemia is a condition characterized by low potassium levels in the blood, which can lead to muscle weakness, cramps, and even paralysis. While bradycardia (slow heart rate) can be associated with severe hypokalemia, monitoring for muscle weakness is more specific to the condition. Checking deep tendon reflexes is not typically a primary monitoring parameter for hypokalemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is not directly related to hypokalemia, as hypokalemia is primarily associated with potassium levels in the blood.

Question 5 of 9

What are the adverse effects of radiation after a mastectomy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: S3 heart sound, fatigue. Radiation after a mastectomy can lead to fatigue and symptoms of heart failure, such as the presence of an S3 heart sound. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Pulselessness in the affected extremity would be more relevant to vascular complications, shortness of breath (SOB) and jugular venous distention (JVD) could indicate cardiac or respiratory issues unrelated to radiation, and localized pain, swelling, and erythema are more characteristic of a local inflammatory response rather than the systemic effects of radiation post-mastectomy.

Question 6 of 9

A patient with a new diagnosis of diabetes insipidus is planning care. What should be included in the plan of care?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid alcohol. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination leads to fluid loss, so it is essential to avoid alcohol which can exacerbate dehydration. Choice B is incorrect as increasing exercise may not directly impact diabetes insipidus. Choice C is also incorrect because although increasing fluid intake may seem intuitive, it is not the primary concern in managing diabetes insipidus. Choice D is not directly related to managing diabetes insipidus; sodium restriction is more relevant in conditions like hypertension or heart failure.

Question 7 of 9

What is the primary nursing action for a patient experiencing continuous bubbling in the chest tube water seal chamber?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. Continuous bubbling in the chest tube water seal chamber indicates an air leak. By tightening the connections of the chest tube system, the nurse can often resolve the issue by ensuring there are no loose connections allowing air to enter. Clamping the chest tube or replacing the chest tube system are not appropriate actions in this situation. Clamping the tube can cause a dangerous buildup of pressure, while replacing the system should only be considered if tightening the connections does not resolve the air leak.

Question 8 of 9

What are the expected changes on an ECG for a patient with hypokalemia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily manifests as flattened T waves on an ECG. While prominent U waves can be seen in hypokalemia, they are not as specific as flattened T waves. ST elevation is more commonly associated with conditions like myocardial infarction rather than hypokalemia. Wide QRS complexes are typically not a feature of hypokalemia on an ECG.

Question 9 of 9

What dietary recommendations should be provided to a patient with GERD?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and spicy foods. These types of foods can trigger acid reflux and worsen GERD symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as eating large meals before bed can increase the likelihood of acid reflux due to increased pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Choice C is also incorrect as consuming liquids with meals can cause distension in the stomach, potentially leading to reflux. Choice D is not directly related to GERD, as foods high in potassium are generally healthy and not specifically problematic for GERD patients.

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