What is the classification for the drug valproate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Valproate is classified as an anticonvulsant. It is commonly used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain. Therefore, the correct classification for valproate is as an anticonvulsant. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because valproate is not used to treat diabetes, ulcers, or hypertension.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds with specific antigens on B-lymphocytes, leading to the destruction of cancer cells. In the context of Non-Hodgkin's Leukemia, Rituximab targets and destroys cancerous B-lymphocytes, which helps in treating the disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Rituximab does not block hormone receptors, increase immune response, or stop DNA replication during cell division. The primary mode of action of Rituximab is its binding with specific antigens on tumor cells, specifically B-lymphocytes, to elicit an immune response against cancerous cells.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the thyroid hormone assay. Long-term lithium use can result in thyroid dysfunction, making it crucial to monitor the client's thyroid function regularly to detect any abnormalities early and prevent potential complications. Liver function tests (choice B) are not specifically associated with lithium therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (choice C) is a nonspecific test for inflammation and not directly related to lithium therapy. Brain natriuretic peptide (choice D) is a test used to diagnose heart failure and is not relevant to monitoring lithium therapy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Clients prescribed Digoxin should monitor their heart rate before each dose. This is essential to identify any potential bradycardia, defined as a heart rate below 60 bpm, which can be a side effect of Digoxin. Any significant changes in heart rate should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choice B is incorrect because increasing intake of high-potassium foods can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition that can be exacerbated by Digoxin. Choice C is incorrect as taking Digoxin with a full glass of milk is not necessary. Choice D is incorrect as black, tarry stools are not an expected side effect of Digoxin.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: To obtain an accurate gentamicin serum level, the trough should be drawn immediately before administering the medication, and the peak level should be drawn 30 minutes after the dose. This timing allows for the assessment of the lowest and highest drug concentrations in the bloodstream, ensuring therapeutic levels are achieved while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Choice A is correct as it follows this timing protocol. Choices B and D have incorrect timing for peak and trough levels, which would not provide an accurate representation of the drug's concentration in the bloodstream.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Vancomycin is known to cause ototoxicity, which can result in hearing loss. Therefore, it is important for clients to monitor for any changes in their hearing while taking this medication and promptly report any issues to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because red man syndrome is associated with rapid infusion of Vancomycin, not a common side effect during treatment; taking the medication with a full glass of water is a general instruction for many medications but not specific to Vancomycin; and increasing potassium-rich foods is not directly related to Vancomycin therapy.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: When administering Phenytoin, monitoring the patient's behavior is important to assess for any changes that may indicate adverse effects. Monitoring therapeutic blood levels helps ensure the medication is within the effective range and not causing toxicity. Additionally, being vigilant for signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a severe skin reaction associated with Phenytoin use, is crucial for early detection and intervention. Therefore, monitoring behavior, therapeutic blood levels, and for signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome are all essential when administering Phenytoin.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In treating a Cerebrospinal fluid infection caused by gram-negative bacteria, Cefepime, a fourth-generation cephalosporin, is the most suitable choice due to its enhanced efficacy against gram-negative organisms in such infections. Cefaclor (Choice A) is a second-generation cephalosporin more commonly used for respiratory tract infections. Cefazolin (Choice B) is a first-generation cephalosporin often used for skin and soft tissue infections. Cephalexin (Choice D) is a first-generation cephalosporin indicated for skin and urinary tract infections, but not the optimal choice for a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Methotrexate is to avoid drinking alcohol. Methotrexate can cause liver toxicity, and alcohol consumption can increase this risk. It is important to emphasize the avoidance of alcohol while on this medication to prevent adverse effects and ensure treatment effectiveness. The other options are incorrect: Taking Methotrexate with a high-fat meal is not necessary as it can be taken with or without food. Increased hair growth is not an expected effect of Methotrexate; in fact, hair loss is a potential side effect. Stopping the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be dangerous and may lead to worsening of symptoms or relapse, making option D incorrect.