ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the BEST urine sample to be used for an accurate result of pregnancy test done at home?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: First-voided morning urine is the best urine sample to be used for an accurate result of a pregnancy test done at home because it is more concentrated compared to urine samples collected at other times of the day. Overnight, the hCG hormone (human chorionic gonadotropin) builds up in a woman's body, making the early morning urine more likely to contain higher levels of hCG if a woman is pregnant. The concentrated nature of first-morning urine reduces the chances of false-negative results since it provides a higher concentration of the hormone that the test is designed to detect. Therefore, using first-morning urine increases the sensitivity of the pregnancy test and improves the accuracy of the results.
Question 2 of 9
A patient presents with a painless thyroid nodule and hoarseness of voice. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy reveals papillary thyroid carcinoma. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation of a painless thyroid nodule and hoarseness of voice is consistent with papillary thyroid carcinoma, a type of thyroid cancer. While Hashimoto's thyroiditis and Graves' disease are autoimmune thyroid conditions that can lead to thyroid nodules, they typically do not present with hoarseness of voice. Diabetes mellitus does not directly cause these symptoms. Thyroid cancer, particularly papillary thyroid carcinoma, is the most likely cause based on the patient's clinical presentation and the biopsy results.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which assessment finding indicates a therapeutic effect of beta-blocker therapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Beta-blockers are medications commonly used in the management of heart failure. One of the therapeutic effects of beta-blockers is to decrease the heart rate. By blocking the action of adrenaline on the heart, beta-blockers help to slow down the heart rate, reduce the workload on the heart, and improve overall heart function. In patients with heart failure, a decreased heart rate is a favorable outcome as it can help improve cardiac output and reduce symptoms of heart failure such as fatigue and shortness of breath. Monitoring the heart rate is an important assessment parameter to evaluate the effectiveness of beta-blocker therapy in patients with heart failure. Therefore, a decreased heart rate would indicate a therapeutic effect of beta-blocker therapy in this patient.
Question 4 of 9
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage liver disease experiences severe pruritus. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In end-stage liver disease, pruritus (itching) can be a distressing symptom caused by the accumulation of bile salts in the skin due to impaired liver function. Cholestyramine and other bile acid sequestrants are the primary treatment for managing pruritus in these patients. These medications bind to the bile salts in the intestine, preventing their reabsorption and reducing the itching symptoms. Antihistamines may not be as effective for this type of pruritus since it is not histamine-mediated. Topical corticosteroids are generally not recommended for long-term use in liver disease due to the risk of systemic absorption and adverse effects. Avoiding hot showers or baths may provide some temporary relief but is not a definitive treatment. Therefore, prioritizing the prescription of cholestyramine or bile acid sequestrants would be the most appropriate intervention to address the severe pruritus in a patient with end-stage liver disease
Question 5 of 9
A patient in the intensive care unit (ICU) develops acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) characterized by hypoxemia and bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) is a severe form of acute lung injury that is characterized by hypoxemia, bilateral pulmonary infiltrates, and noncardiogenic pulmonary edema. When managing a patient with ARDS in the ICU, the priority intervention is to provide adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Mechanical ventilation is often necessary to support gas exchange in these patients.
Question 6 of 9
The physician orders cromolyn sodium (nasal crom) for the client. The nurse instructs the client that the most effective administration schedule is ________.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cromolyn sodium (nasal crom) is a mast cell stabilizer that is commonly used to prevent symptoms of allergic rhinitis, such as sneezing, itching, and congestion. It works best when used before exposure to allergens. The most effective administration schedule for nasal crom is to start using it just after allergy symptoms begin, with a dose of twice-a-day. This helps to prevent the release of histamine and other inflammatory substances from mast cells, thereby reducing allergic symptoms. Using nasal crom in this way can help provide relief and improve the overall management of allergic rhinitis.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is delegating tasks to a nursing assistant. What principle should guide the nurse's delegation decisions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a nurse is delegating tasks to a nursing assistant, the principle that should guide the nurse's delegation decisions is assigning tasks based on the assistant's level of experience (Option B). It is essential to take into consideration the skills, competencies, and experience level of the nursing assistant to ensure that the tasks delegated are suitable for them to perform safely and effectively. Delegating tasks beyond the assistant's level of experience may result in errors, inefficiencies, or compromised patient care. Therefore, matching tasks with the assistant's experience level is crucial in successful delegation and providing quality patient care.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following interventions is recommended for managing a patient with a suspected opioid overdose?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone is a medication used to reverse the effects of an opioid overdose by binding to opioid receptors and displacing the opioids. Administering naloxone intravenously is the recommended intervention for managing a patient with a suspected opioid overdose as it can quickly reverse respiratory depression, sedation, and other effects of opioids. This intervention can be life-saving in cases of opioid overdose and is a critical step in the management of such patients. Providing respiratory support with bag-valve-mask ventilation may be necessary in addition to naloxone administration to ensure adequate oxygenation, but naloxone remains the primary intervention to reverse the effects of opioids. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids rapidly or administering benzodiazepines for sedation are not recommended interventions for managing a suspected opioid overdose.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with hypertension is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Which adverse effect is most commonly associated with ACE inhibitors?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most commonly associated adverse effect with ACE inhibitors is a dry cough. This cough is non-productive and can be quite bothersome for patients, often leading to non-compliance with the medication. The cough is thought to be due to the accumulation of bradykinin and substance P, which are vasodilatory and bronchoconstrictive peptides that are normally degraded by ACE. When ACE is inhibited, these peptides accumulate and can lead to irritation of the respiratory tract, resulting in the dry cough. It's important for healthcare providers to be aware of this common side effect and consider alternative medications if the cough becomes problematic for the patient.