What is the best therapeutic plan for treating actinomycosis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, chemotherapy combined with surgical therapy. Actinomycosis is a bacterial infection that requires a combination of antibiotics to target the bacteria and surgery to remove abscesses or infected tissues. Antibiotics alone may not penetrate abscesses effectively. Waiting for self-clearance can lead to complications. Surgical treatment alone may not eradicate the infection entirely. Therefore, the most effective therapeutic plan is to combine chemotherapy to treat the infection systemically and surgery to remove localized infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperresponsiveness reaction type IV. This type of reaction, also known as delayed-type hypersensitivity, is characterized by the activation of T lymphocytes and macrophages, leading to inflammation at the site of antigen exposure. In the case of the Mantoux test, the appearance of a papule 48 hours later indicates a delayed hypersensitivity reaction mediated by T cells. Choice B: Reaction of Arthus phenomenon type is incorrect as this type of reaction involves immune complexes forming in the blood vessels leading to tissue damage, which is not the mechanism seen in the Mantoux test reaction. Choice C: Reaction of serum sickness type is incorrect as this type of reaction involves the formation of immune complexes in the blood leading to systemic symptoms like fever, rash, and joint pain, which is not typically seen in the Mantoux test reaction. Choice D: Atopic reaction is incorrect as atopic reactions involve IgE antibodies and mast cell degranulation, which are not the mechanisms

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Toxoplasmosis. Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection caused by Toxoplasma gondii, which can be transmitted from mother to fetus during pregnancy, leading to congenital toxoplasmosis. This infection can result in stillbirth, multiple developmental defects, and intrauterine death. Leishmaniasis (B), Malaria (C), and Amebiasis (D) are caused by different parasites and do not typically lead to intrauterine death or developmental defects in the fetus.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cell wall. Mycoplasma species lack a cell wall, making them unique among bacteria. This is because they have a flexible cell membrane that provides structural support instead of a rigid cell wall. The absence of a cell wall allows them to be pleomorphic and gives them resistance to certain antibiotics targeting cell wall synthesis. Plasma membrane (B), DNA (C), and ribosomes (D) are present in Mycoplasma species, so they are not the correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: BCG. Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine is used for the prevention of tuberculosis. BCG is a live attenuated strain of Mycobacterium bovis that helps the immune system recognize and fight off tuberculosis bacteria. Specific anti-tuberculosis serum (A) is not used for prevention but for treatment. DTP (C) stands for diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccine, not specific for tuberculosis prevention. PPD (D) is a tuberculin skin test used for diagnosis, not prevention. Thus, BCG is the correct choice for tuberculosis prevention.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice A being correct: 1. Parvovirus B19 is a single-stranded DNA (ssDNA) virus. 2. The prefix "parvo-" indicates small size, characteristic of ssDNA viruses. 3. ssDNA viruses replicate in the host cell by converting their ssDNA genome into double-stranded DNA (dsDNA). 4. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Its genome consists of dsDNA. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Parvovirus B19 is a non-enveloped virus, making choice B incorrect. C: Parvovirus B19 has a linear ssDNA genome, not segmented, making choice C incorrect. D: Parvovirus B19 has two structural proteins - VP1 and VP2, making choice D incorrect.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Adenoviruses are DNA viruses, so choices B and C (ssRNA and DNA) are incorrect. 2. Adenoviruses have a middle-sized, naked icosahedral capsid, making choice A the correct description. 3. Choice D is incorrect as adenoviruses do have specific characteristics, making "None of the above" an inaccurate option. In summary, the correct answer A is supported by the fact that adenoviruses have a middle-sized, naked icosahedral capsid and contain double-stranded DNA. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the characteristics of adenoviruses.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Salmonella. This bacterium should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility due to its potential to cause disease in humans. Salmonella is a pathogenic bacterium that can cause foodborne illnesses and infections. Handling it in a Biosafety Level 2 facility ensures proper containment and protection of personnel. A: Micrococcus luteus and B: Bacillus subtilis are common environmental bacteria that do not pose significant risks to human health, so they can be safely handled in lower biosafety levels. D: Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common skin commensal bacterium that is generally not considered highly pathogenic, so it does not require Biosafety Level 2 containment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This is because Pseudomonas is a Gram-negative rod, oxidase-positive, and non-lactose fermenter. These characteristics are typical of Pseudomonas species. B: Escherichia coli is a Gram-negative rod but is lactose fermenter and usually oxidase-negative. C: Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative rod, non-lactose fermenter, but is usually oxidase-negative. D: Shigella dysenteriae is a Gram-negative rod, non-lactose fermenter, but is usually oxidase-negative and is more associated with causing shigellosis rather than deep tissue infections.