ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the best nursing action for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best nursing action for a patient experiencing shortness of breath as it helps alleviate the symptoms and improve oxygenation. Providing oxygen addresses the primary issue of inadequate oxygen levels in the body, which can be a life-threatening situation. Administering bronchodilators (choice B) may be appropriate for specific respiratory conditions like asthma but is not the initial intervention for all causes of shortness of breath. Repositioning the patient (choice C) can sometimes help improve breathing, but in a patient experiencing significant shortness of breath, immediate oxygen therapy is crucial. Providing IV fluids (choice D) is not indicated as the first-line intervention for shortness of breath unless there is a specific underlying cause such as dehydration.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client who has pericarditis. Which of the following findings is the priority?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a client with pericarditis, the priority finding is a paradoxical pulse. This is a crucial sign of cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening complication of pericarditis where fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac, causing compression of the heart. A paradoxical pulse is an exaggerated decrease in systolic blood pressure (>10 mmHg) during inspiration. Prompt recognition and intervention are essential to prevent hemodynamic instability and cardiac arrest. Dependent edema (choice B) is not typically associated with pericarditis. Pericardial friction rub (choice C) is a common finding in pericarditis but does not indicate the urgency of intervention as a paradoxical pulse. Substernal chest pain (choice D) is a classic symptom of pericarditis but is not as critical as a paradoxical pulse in the context of assessing for complications.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is planning care for a client who had gastric bypass surgery 1 week ago and has signs of early dumping syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Facial flushing is a common symptom of early dumping syndrome, which occurs when food moves too quickly into the small intestine. This rapid movement triggers the release of vasoactive peptides causing vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. Syncope (choice B) is not a typical finding in early dumping syndrome. Diaphoresis (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic symptoms of early dumping syndrome.
Question 4 of 9
A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a complication that should be reported in clients receiving TPN. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac and neuromuscular complications. The other options are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns for a client receiving TPN. A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL, serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, and platelet count of 250,000/mm³ are all considered normal values and do not require immediate intervention.
Question 5 of 9
How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with chronic kidney disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Limiting fluid intake is essential in managing patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent fluid overload, which can worsen kidney function. Increasing potassium intake is not recommended as patients with kidney disease often need to limit potassium. Providing a high-protein diet may put extra strain on the kidneys, so it is not ideal. Administering IV antibiotics is not a standard treatment for chronic kidney disease.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is below the normal range and indicates hypokalemia, which should be reported to the provider. Hypokalemia can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. A blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL is slightly elevated but not critically high. A serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L is within the normal range. A serum albumin level of 3.8 g/dL is also within the normal range.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for an albuterol inhaler. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Instructing the client to hold their breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication allows it to reach deeper into the lungs for maximum effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because taking one puff every 5 minutes may lead to overuse of the medication. Choice C is incorrect as shaking the inhaler for only 2 seconds may not provide adequate mixing of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because exhaling forcefully after each puff may reduce the amount of medication that reaches the lungs.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with DVT is to apply cold packs to the affected extremity. Cold packs can help reduce swelling and pain by constricting blood vessels. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge a clot and worsen the condition. Elevating the affected extremity helps with blood flow but is not the priority intervention for DVT. Performing range-of-motion exercises on the affected extremity can also dislodge a clot and is contraindicated.
Question 9 of 9
What is the appropriate nursing response when a patient refuses blood transfusion due to religious beliefs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Respect the patient's decision and notify the provider." When a patient refuses a blood transfusion due to religious beliefs, it is essential to respect their autonomy and religious beliefs. Attempting to persuade the patient (Choice B) goes against the principle of respect for autonomy and can lead to ethical dilemmas. Documenting the refusal and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice C) is important for legal and ethical purposes but should be preceded by respecting the patient's decision. Providing education on the benefits of blood transfusion (Choice D) may be appropriate in other situations but is not indicated when a patient refuses based on religious beliefs.