What is the best explanation that the nurse can provide to a patient who is concerned that she has "pseudoanemia" of pregnancy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because pseudoanemia of pregnancy is a normal physiological change where the blood volume expands more rapidly than red blood cell production, leading to a relative decrease in the concentration of red blood cells. By informing the patient that due to the pregnancy, her blood volume has increased, the nurse is addressing the underlying cause of the condition. This explanation reassures the patient that the pseudoanemia is a common occurrence during pregnancy and does not indicate a true anemia requiring treatment. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the patient's concerns about pseudoanemia and delays providing a clear explanation. Choice B is incorrect because pseudoanemia does not require a high-iron diet for correction. Choice D is incorrect as prescribing iron pills is unnecessary for pseudoanemia, which is a normal variant of pregnancy.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prolonged emptying time. During pregnancy, hormonal changes can lead to gallbladder stasis, causing bile to become concentrated and leading to the formation of gallstones. Prolonged emptying time indicates poor gallbladder motility, increasing the risk of gallstone formation. A: Decrease in alkaline phosphatase levels is not directly related to gallstone formation during pregnancy. B: Increase in albumin and total protein is a common finding in pregnancy due to hemodilution, but it is not directly linked to gallstone development. C: Hypertonicity of gallbladder tissue is not a typical physiologic finding related to gallbladder function during pregnancy and is not a known risk factor for gallstone formation.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because scheduling the patient to be seen by a healthcare provider within the next 4 weeks is important for further evaluation and management of the patient's amenorrhea. This timeline allows for timely assessment and potential interventions if needed. Choice A is incorrect as simply having a positive urine hCG test does not provide enough information on its own to determine the appropriate nursing action. Choice B is incorrect as asking about nausea or vomiting does not address the need for a comprehensive assessment and evaluation of the patient's amenorrhea. Choice D is incorrect as sending the patient to the maternity screening area assumes a pregnancy-related issue without proper evaluation and could lead to unnecessary testing or interventions.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C: "There is nothing to worry about." This answer acknowledges the patient's concerns while providing reassurance. By stating that there is nothing to worry about, the nurse addresses the patient's anxiety and helps alleviate her fears without dismissing them. Option A is too dismissive, B encourages the patient to share concerns but doesn't provide immediate reassurance, and D shifts the focus to the doctor instead of directly addressing the patient's worries.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Developing attachment with the baby. In the scenario described, the expectant patient's strong tie and attunement to the baby's temperament indicate the development of an emotional bond or attachment with the baby. This is an essential maternal task during pregnancy as it promotes maternal-infant bonding and prepares the mother for the caregiving role postpartum. A: Learning to give of herself - While important in motherhood, this choice doesn't specifically address the emotional bond being described in the scenario. C: Securing acceptance of the baby by others - This choice focuses on external factors rather than the maternal relationship with the baby. D: Seeking safe passage for herself and her baby - This choice pertains more to physical safety and well-being rather than the emotional connection between the mother and the baby.