ATI RN
Kaplan and Sadocks Synopsis of Psychiatry 12th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the basis for the reduction in disturbed thought processes when a patient is administered haloperidol (Haldol)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because haloperidol is a dopamine receptor antagonist. By blocking dopamine receptors, it reduces the activity of dopamine in the brain, which helps in reducing disturbed thought processes. Option A is incorrect as dopamine craving is not related to the mechanism of action of haloperidol. Option B is incorrect as enhancing dopamine receptors would increase dopamine activity, opposite to the intended effect of haloperidol. Option C is incorrect as increasing cellular production of dopamine would also increase dopamine activity, contradicting the purpose of using haloperidol.
Question 2 of 5
Which behavior best supports the diagnosis of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder in an 8-year-old child?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the inability to concentrate for extended periods is a key characteristic of ADHD. This behavior aligns with the inattention aspect of the disorder. Choice A is incorrect as separation anxiety does not directly relate to ADHD. Choice B could indicate oppositional behavior rather than ADHD. Choice C suggests sensory-seeking behavior, which is not a defining feature of ADHD.
Question 3 of 5
The mother of a child describes her child's annoying behavior as not being able to sit still or to stop jerking his arms when told to. Which disorder does the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tourette’s disorder. The child's inability to sit still and jerking arms suggest motor tics, which are common in Tourette's disorder. Tourette's is characterized by involuntary repetitive movements or sounds. Choice A is incorrect as oppositional-defiant disorder does not involve physical tics. Choice C is a duplicate. Choice D is incorrect as it assumes defiance rather than considering a neurological explanation for the behavior.
Question 4 of 5
A 79-year-old white male tells a nurse, “I have felt very sad lately. I do not have much to live for. My family and friends are all dead, and my own health is failing.” The nurse should analyze this comment as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Evidence of risks for suicide. The statement contains indicators such as feeling very sad, lack of purpose, isolation, and declining health, which are red flags for suicide risk in older adults. It is crucial for healthcare providers to assess and intervene promptly in such cases to prevent harm. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the seriousness of the situation or the potential risk for self-harm.
Question 5 of 5
A health care provider writes these new prescriptions for a resident in a skilled nursing facility: 2 G sodium diet, Restraint as needed, Limit fluids to 1800 mL daily, Continue antihypertensive medication, Milk of magnesia 30 mL PO once if no bowel movement for 3 days. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Fluid restriction of 1800 mL may not be appropriate for all residents in a skilled nursing facility. Step 2: Excessive fluid restriction can lead to dehydration, especially in elderly residents. Step 3: It is crucial for the nurse to question the fluid restriction to ensure it is safe for the resident. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Summary: - Option A is correct as questioning the fluid restriction is essential for the resident's safety. - Option B is incorrect as restraining a resident should only be used as a last resort and should be questioned if not necessary. - Option C is incorrect as blindly transcribing without assessing appropriateness can be harmful. - Option D is incorrect as assessing bowel elimination is important but addressing the fluid restriction is more urgent in this scenario.