ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing First Chapter Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the appropriate ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths for adult CPR?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The appropriate ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths for adult CPR is 30 compressions to 2 breaths. This means that after every 30 chest compressions, two rescue breaths should be given. This ratio helps in maintaining oxygen circulation in the body while also ensuring that the heart is being effectively pumped to circulate blood. The emphasis on chest compressions is critical in maintaining blood flow to vital organs during cardiac arrest, while the rescue breaths help in providing oxygen to the patient's lungs. This ratio is recommended by organizations like the American Heart Association for performing high-quality adult CPR.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following actions is appropriate for managing a conscious patient with a dislocated shoulder?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For managing a conscious patient with a dislocated shoulder, the appropriate action is to provide analgesia to help manage the pain and discomfort associated with the dislocation. Applying ice packs to the affected shoulder can also help reduce swelling and provide some relief. It is important to refrain from attempting to reduce the dislocation by pulling on the affected arm, as this can cause further damage and worsen the injury. Applying a splint to immobilize the arm in the dislocated position is also not recommended, as this can lead to complications and hinder the reduction process. Administering intravenous fluids to prevent dehydration is not directly related to managing a dislocated shoulder in a conscious patient.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following conditions is characterized by the presence of high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) types and is associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) is a premalignant condition of the cervix that is characterized by the presence of high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) types. HPV infection is a major risk factor for the development of cervical cancer. CIN is typically detected on routine cervical screening tests such as Pap smears or HPV testing. If left untreated, CIN can progress to invasive cervical cancer. Therefore, the presence of high-risk HPV types in CIN lesions indicates an increased risk of developing cervical cancer.
Question 4 of 5
A 55-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with vaginal bleeding. On pelvic examination, the cervix appears healthy, and there is no cervical motion tenderness. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for these findings?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In a 55-year-old postmenopausal woman presenting with vaginal bleeding and a healthy cervix on examination, the most likely cause would be a cervical polyp. Cervical polyps are benign growths that can occur on the cervix and are often asymptomatic but can occasionally cause postmenopausal bleeding. Their appearance on examination would typically be a non-malignant finding with no cervical motion tenderness. Cervical cancer, endometrial cancer, and vaginal cancer would typically present with different examination findings and risk factors.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of ovarian cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A family history of breast cancer is a known risk factor for the development of ovarian cancer. Individuals with a close relative (such as a mother, sister, or daughter) who has had breast cancer have a higher risk of developing ovarian cancer. This increased risk is due to shared genetic factors that can predispose individuals to both breast and ovarian cancers. Therefore, having a family history of breast cancer is an important risk factor to consider in the assessment of ovarian cancer risk.