ATI RN
physical examination and health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the appropriate prophylactic medication for an 18-year-old woman with a past medical history of migraine headaches?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Propranolol (Inderal) for the appropriate prophylactic medication for an 18-year-old woman with a past medical history of migraine headaches. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that has been shown to be effective in preventing migraines by reducing the frequency and severity of attacks. It works by decreasing the excitability of the nerves in the brain that trigger migraines. Option A) Sumatriptan (Imitrex) is a medication used to treat acute migraine attacks, not for prophylaxis. It works by narrowing blood vessels in the brain to reduce pain. Option C) Ibuprofen (Motrin) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly used for pain relief, including migraines. However, it is not the first choice for prophylactic treatment of migraines. Option D) Dihydroergotamine (DHE) is another medication used to treat acute migraine attacks, not for prevention. It works by constricting blood vessels in the brain. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate prophylactic medications for migraines is crucial in managing this common condition effectively. Propranolol, among other preventive medications, plays a key role in reducing the frequency and severity of migraines, improving the quality of life for individuals suffering from this condition. It is essential for healthcare providers to be knowledgeable about the appropriate use of these medications to provide optimal care for patients with migraines.
Question 2 of 5
The client with iron deficiency anemia should be advised to take the iron supplement:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In pharmacology, it is crucial to understand the optimal conditions for medication effectiveness. In the case of iron supplements for a client with iron deficiency anemia, advising them to take the supplement on an empty stomach between meals is the correct choice. Iron absorption is significantly enhanced when taken on an empty stomach as it is less likely to interact with other nutrients that could inhibit its absorption, such as calcium found in dairy products like milk. Taking iron with food can reduce its absorption by as much as 50%. Therefore, to maximize the therapeutic benefit of the iron supplement, it should be taken separately from meals. Option A, taking the iron supplement with milk to avoid stomach upset, is incorrect because as mentioned earlier, calcium in milk can interfere with iron absorption. Option B, taking the supplement with milk of magnesia at bedtime to avoid constipation, is also incorrect as milk of magnesia is a laxative and not relevant to iron supplementation. Option D, taking the supplement for 30 days to 5 weeks, is incorrect as the duration of iron supplementation should be determined by the healthcare provider based on the client's response to treatment and iron levels. Educationally, understanding the importance of proper iron supplement administration can lead to improved patient outcomes. Students and healthcare professionals need to grasp the nuances of drug administration to ensure the most effective treatment for patients with iron deficiency anemia. This rationale provides a clear explanation of why taking the iron supplement on an empty stomach between meals is the best practice for optimal absorption and efficacy.
Question 3 of 5
A patient presents with signs of chest pain, the nurse practitioner observes jugular venous distention. Their finding is consistent with:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Heart failure. Jugular venous distention is a classic sign of heart failure. When the heart is unable to effectively pump blood forward, it can lead to a backup of blood in the venous system, causing jugular venous distention. This visible distention of the jugular veins indicates increased central venous pressure, which is a hallmark of heart failure. Option A) Hypertension is incorrect because although hypertension can lead to cardiac issues, it typically does not present with jugular venous distention as a primary sign. Option C) Asthma is incorrect because it is a respiratory condition characterized by airway inflammation and bronchoconstriction, not by jugular venous distention. Option D) Pneumonia is incorrect as it is an infection of the lung tissue and does not typically cause jugular venous distention unless severe complications like sepsis develop. Educationally, understanding the significance of jugular venous distention as a clinical sign in heart failure is crucial for nurses and healthcare providers. Recognizing this sign promptly can lead to timely interventions and appropriate management to improve patient outcomes. It underscores the importance of a comprehensive physical assessment in diagnosing and managing patients with cardiac conditions.
Question 4 of 5
A 57-year-old post-menopausal female presents with a complaint of vaginal burning, pruritus, and painful intercourse. On examination, the nurse practitioner would be most concerned with the findings:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) A thin, pale, dry vaginal mucosa. In a post-menopausal female experiencing symptoms such as vaginal burning, pruritus, and painful intercourse, the nurse practitioner would be most concerned with vaginal atrophy. This condition is characterized by a thin, pale, and dry vaginal mucosa due to decreased estrogen levels post-menopause. The lack of estrogen leads to changes in the vaginal tissue, making it more susceptible to irritation and discomfort. Option B) Absence of rugae is less concerning as rugae may naturally decrease with age and is not specific to the symptoms described. Option C) A friable cervix is not directly related to the symptoms mentioned by the patient and would not be the primary concern in this case. Option D) A raised yellowish cervical lesion is more indicative of a cervical pathology such as a polyp or infection, which would present with different symptoms compared to those described by the patient. In an educational context, understanding the physiological changes that occur in post-menopausal women due to decreased estrogen levels is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize and address symptoms effectively. Recognizing the signs of vaginal atrophy can help in providing appropriate treatment options and improving the quality of life for women experiencing these symptoms.
Question 5 of 5
In a patient who has a history of migraine headaches, which characteristic is most common?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a patient with a history of migraine headaches, the most common characteristic is having a family history of migraines (Option B). This is because migraines often have a genetic component, with individuals who have a family history of migraines being more likely to experience them themselves. Understanding the genetic predisposition can help healthcare providers better assess and manage the patient's condition. Option A, focal deficits, is less common in migraines and is more characteristic of conditions like strokes or transient ischemic attacks. Option C, weakness, is a symptom that can occur during a migraine attack but is not the most common characteristic associated with migraines. Option D, initial onset after age 35, is not a typical characteristic of migraines as they often start in younger individuals, although they can persist throughout life. In an educational context, understanding the common characteristics of migraines, such as the strong influence of family history, is crucial for healthcare providers to accurately diagnose and manage patients with this condition. This knowledge can guide appropriate treatment plans and help improve patient outcomes.