ATI RN
Cardiovascular Test Bank Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the appropriate priority nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. By checking the digoxin level, the nurse can ensure the patient's safety and prevent potential complications. Option A is incorrect as monitoring is necessary regardless of the level. Option B is incorrect as administering potassium without assessing the digoxin level can be dangerous. Option D is incorrect as stopping digoxin abruptly can lead to adverse effects. In summary, option C is the most appropriate intervention to ensure patient safety and prevent complications.
Question 2 of 5
The client is on a Class II anti-arrhythmic agent. What is one of these drugs?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sodium channel blocker. Class II anti-arrhythmic agents primarily target beta blockers. These drugs work by blocking sodium channels, which helps in controlling irregular heart rhythms. Calcium channel blockers (choice A) and ACE inhibitors (choice D) do not belong to Class II anti-arrhythmic agents. Beta blockers (choice B) are Class II anti-arrhythmic agents, but the question asks for the specific drug class within Class II, which is sodium channel blockers.
Question 3 of 5
The client has hypertension and is being treated with an ACE inhibitor. What vital signs would trigger the release of renin from the kidneys?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (BP of 145/95). When the blood pressure is elevated, the kidneys sense a decrease in perfusion pressure and trigger the release of renin to increase blood pressure. A low blood pressure of 70/40 (choice A) would not stimulate renin release as it is too low. The pulse rate (choices C & D) does not directly trigger the release of renin.
Question 4 of 5
The client is toxic on heparin. What can the nurse do to counteract this?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Give Protamine. Protamine is the specific antidote for heparin overdose as it binds to heparin molecules, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. Vitamin K (A) is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Warfarin (C) is another anticoagulant and should not be given to counteract heparin toxicity. Platelets (D) are used to treat bleeding caused by low platelet count, not heparin toxicity. Therefore, giving Protamine is the appropriate intervention in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
The client is on a platelet inhibitor. Which of the following drugs is a platelet inhibitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Aspirin is the correct answer as it inhibits platelet aggregation by irreversibly inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzyme. This prevents the formation of thromboxane A2, decreasing platelet activation. Pradaxa is a direct thrombin inhibitor, Heparin is an anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa, and Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Therefore, only Aspirin directly targets platelet function.