What is the appropriate action when a patient experiences an allergic reaction to a medication?

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ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam Questions

Question 1 of 9

What is the appropriate action when a patient experiences an allergic reaction to a medication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for a severe allergic reaction as it helps to constrict blood vessels, increase heart rate, and open airways, thereby improving breathing and circulation. Discontinuing the medication may not be sufficient to manage a severe allergic reaction as the allergen is already in the patient's system. Corticosteroids and antihistamines can be considered as complementary treatments but are not the primary immediate intervention required for a severe allergic reaction.

Question 2 of 9

Which medication is used to treat opioid overdose?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer. Naloxone is the standard medication for reversing opioid overdose by blocking opioid receptors. Choice B, Epinephrine, is used to treat severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis) and cardiac arrest, not opioid overdose. Choice C, Lidocaine, is a local anesthetic used for numbing purposes and managing certain types of arrhythmias, not for opioid overdose. Choice D, Atropine, is used to treat bradycardia, organophosphate poisoning, and nerve agent toxicity, not opioid overdose.

Question 3 of 9

A healthcare professional is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to inject the medication into the lateral abdominal wall when administering enoxaparin. This is the recommended technique to ensure proper absorption and prevent tissue damage. Choice A is incorrect because enoxaparin should be administered subcutaneously, not intramuscularly. Choice C is incorrect as massaging the injection site after administration is not recommended, as it can cause bruising and discomfort. Choice D is incorrect because the prefilled syringe should not be discarded after expelling the air bubble; it should be used for the injection.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse is planning care for a client who has a closed head injury and has an intraventricular catheter. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to reduce the risk for infection?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the insertion site for redness. This intervention helps detect signs of infection early in clients with intraventricular catheters. Keeping the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees is important for managing intracranial pressure but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Administering IV antibiotics prophylactically is not recommended as a routine practice due to the risk of antibiotic resistance and should only be done based on culture results. Changing the catheter insertion site every 24 hours is unnecessary and increases the risk of introducing new pathogens.

Question 5 of 9

What is the most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia is to monitor lung sounds. Lung sounds provide crucial information about the severity of pneumonia, such as crackles or decreased air entry. This assessment helps in evaluating the effectiveness of ventilation and oxygenation. While checking oxygen saturation is important, monitoring lung sounds gives more direct information about the lung involvement in pneumonia. Assessing for cough and fever are also relevant but do not provide as direct and critical information as monitoring lung sounds in the context of suspected pneumonia.

Question 6 of 9

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common side effect of radiation therapy due to damage to the salivary glands. It is essential for the nurse to monitor for this condition as it can lead to oral health issues and discomfort. Fatigue (choice A) is a common side effect of radiation therapy, but in this case, dry mouth is a more specific side effect to monitor for. Hair loss (choice B) is more commonly associated with chemotherapy rather than radiation therapy. Nausea (choice C) is also a common side effect of radiation therapy, but dry mouth is a more direct effect of the treatment that the nurse should focus on monitoring.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse is teaching a client about home care following cataract surgery. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should wear a protective eye shield while sleeping.' After cataract surgery, wearing a protective eye shield while sleeping is crucial to prevent accidental injury to the eye. Choice B is incorrect because patients should indeed avoid bending over, but it is not the most important instruction among the options provided. Choice C is incorrect because applying pressure to the eye if pain is felt can be harmful and should not be advised. Choice D is incorrect because patients should not resume wearing their regular glasses immediately post cataract surgery; they should wait until their healthcare provider permits.

Question 8 of 9

A client has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a stage 3 pressure injury is to apply a moisture barrier ointment. This helps protect the skin, maintain moisture balance, and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because povidone-iodine solution can be too harsh for wound care. Choice B is incorrect as hydrogen peroxide can be cytotoxic to healing tissue. Choice C is important for preventing pressure injuries but is not a direct intervention for a stage 3 wound.

Question 9 of 9

A nurse is assessing a client who has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Burning sensation in the chest. A burning sensation in the chest is a classic symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Abdominal distention (Choice A) is not typically associated with GERD; it is more commonly seen in conditions like bowel obstruction. Constipation (Choice C) is not a hallmark symptom of GERD, as it is more related to gastrointestinal motility issues. Frequent belching (Choice D) can occur with GERD, but it is not as specific or characteristic as the burning sensation in the chest.

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