ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Practice Exam 1 Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the antidote for Heparin?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The antidote for Heparin, which is an anticoagulant medication, is protamine sulfate. Heparin works by inhibiting the body's ability to form blood clots, and an overdose of Heparin can lead to excessive bleeding. Protamine sulfate works by neutralizing the anticoagulant effects of Heparin. This antidote is particularly useful in cases of overdose or when immediate reversal of Heparin's effects is needed, such as during surgery or in emergency situations. Other options listed, such as Warfarin, Insulin, and Naloxone, are not the appropriate antidotes for Heparin toxicity.
Question 2 of 9
Aspirin is ionized as it enters the small intestine. Which statement is accurate regarding the absorption of aspirin in the small intestine?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Aspirin, an acidic drug, ionizes in the small intestine's alkaline pH, reducing absorption as ionized forms cross membranes less easily than non-ionized. Absorption increases in the stomach's acid pH. Ionization directly affects rate. It absorbs mainly in the stomach and intestine, not beyond. Decreased absorption reflects pH impact, a pharmacokinetic rule.
Question 3 of 9
A patient is receiving intravenous (IV) potassium supplements. What is the most important nursing implication when administering this drug?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IV potassium must always be diluted in IV fluids and administered via an infusion pump to prevent rapid infusion, which can cause life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Administering undiluted potassium or too quickly can lead to hyperkalemia and cardiac arrest. While central lines (A) are sometimes used, potassium can also be given through a peripheral IV if properly diluted. Chilling potassium (C) is unnecessary and could cause discomfort. Preservatives (D) are not a primary concern with IV potassium administration.
Question 4 of 9
Which drug in the following list has an analgesic effect which is not mediated wholly or partly by binding to opioid receptors?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Analgesics often act via opioid receptors. Codeine, a weak mu-opioid agonist, relieves mild pain. Tramadol combines mu agonism with serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibition. Dextropropoxyphene is a mu agonist, buprenorphine a partial agonist. Nefopam's analgesia involves monoamine reuptake inhibition and possibly NMDA antagonism, not opioid receptors, distinguishing it. This non-opioid mechanism suits patients intolerant to opioids, offering an alternative in pain management.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse administers IV mannitol to a client with cerebral edema. Which parameter should the nurse monitor closely?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Mannitol, an osmotic diuretic, reduces cerebral edema by drawing fluid into the vasculature, excreted via urine. Monitoring urine output ensures efficacy and prevents fluid overload or renal strain, critical in brain injury. BP and pupils matter but follow diuresis. Temperature is unrelated. Urine output aligns with mannitol's action, key in cerebral edema where ICP reduction hinges on fluid shift, making A the priority parameter.
Question 6 of 9
Dr. Smith orders a gram of human salt poor albumin product for a patient. The product is available in a 50-milliliter vial with a concentration of 25 percent. What dosage will the nurse administer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the dosage of human salt poor albumin product that the nurse will administer, we need to determine the volume of product containing 1 gram of albumin.
Question 7 of 9
A male patient with blood type AB, Rh factor positive needs a blood transfusion. The Transfusion Service (blood bank) sends type O, Rh factor negative blood to the unit for the nurse to infuse into this patient. The nurse knows that:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Type O, Rh-negative blood is considered the universal donor blood and is compatible with all blood types, including AB-positive. This makes it a safe choice in emergencies or when the patient's blood type is unknown. Premedication with diphenhydramine and acetaminophen is not necessary for compatibility but may be used to prevent allergic reactions or fever. Therefore, the nurse can confidently administer this blood product.
Question 8 of 9
The patient is scheduled to have an EEG to confirm the presence of a sleep disorder. The patient asks the nurse to describe NREM stage 3 sleep. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: NREM stage 3, deep sleep, restores energy-lack causes fatigue and mood dips, per sleep physiology. Stage 1 is lightest, anxiety-sensitive. Dreaming is REM, not here-irritability ties to REM loss. Paradoxical is REM. Deep sleep's role explains EEG focus, answering accurately.
Question 9 of 9
Which is the only type of insulin that can be given IV?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Regular insulin is the only type of insulin that can be given intravenously (IV) due to its short onset of action. When administered IV, regular insulin can act quickly to control blood sugar levels in emergency situations such as diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) or hyperglycemic crises. Other types of insulin, such as NPH, long-acting, or rapid-acting insulins, are not suitable for IV administration as they have different pharmacokinetic properties and are designed for subcutaneous use.