ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 2 Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the administration route of Penicillin in adults?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Penicillin is typically administered to adults intravenously (IV) when a rapid onset of action is needed, such as in cases of severe infections or when the medication needs to reach high concentrations in the bloodstream quickly to be effective. Intravenous administration allows for immediate delivery of the medication directly into the bloodstream, ensuring efficient and quick distribution throughout the body.
Question 2 of 5
Sedatives and hypnotics are drugs which act as:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sedatives and hypnotics are drugs that belong to the class of central nervous system depressants. These drugs work by slowing down the activity of the brain and the central nervous system, leading to a calming or sedative effect. They are commonly prescribed to induce sleep (hypnotics) or reduce anxiety (sedatives) by depressing the excitability of nerve cells. This property makes them effective in producing sedation, relaxation, and sleep in individuals. Therefore, the correct classification for sedatives and hypnotics is as depressants.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is taking azithromycin. Which nursing intervention(s) would the nurse plan to implement for this patient? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic that can cause hepatotoxicity, so periodic liver function tests are necessary. Intravenous azithromycin should be diluted as per protocol, typically in 250-500 mL of fluid, not 50 mL. Loose stools or diarrhea may indicate Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea, a serious adverse effect. Superinfections, such as oral thrush or vaginal yeast infections, should be reported promptly. Teaching the patient to take the oral drug 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals ensures optimal absorption. Avoiding antacids around the time of administration prevents interference with absorption.
Question 4 of 5
A 23-year-old female patient presents at the clinic with a migraine headache. What beta-adrenergic blocking agent might the physician prescribe for the prophylactic prevention of future migraine headaches?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Propranolol is indicated for the treatment of hypertension, angina pectoris, idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis, supraventricular tachycardia, tremor; prevention of reinfarction after myocardial infarction; adjunctive therapy in pheochromocytoma; prophylaxis of migraine headache; and management of situational anxiety. The other options do not treat or prevent migraine headaches. The nurse should understand the indications for propranolol to ensure safe and effective administration.
Question 5 of 5
A patient requires a high dose of a new antihypertensive medication because the new medication has a significant first-pass effect. What does this mean?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The first-pass effect refers to the extensive metabolism of a drug in the liver before it reaches systemic circulation. This reduces the bioavailability of the drug, necessitating a higher dose to achieve therapeutic effects. The medication does not need to pass through the bloodstream multiple times (A), nor is it primarily excreted in the kidneys (B). The drug’s effectiveness is not related to cumulative dosing (D).