What is secondary prevention?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because secondary prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease that has already occurred. It involves early detection, screening, and treatment to prevent the disease from progressing further. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Preventing disease before it occurs refers to primary prevention. C: Softening the impact of an ongoing illness or injury is more related to tertiary prevention. D: Treating existing diseases is a broad term that encompasses both secondary and tertiary prevention.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because alprazolam is a benzodiazepine that can worsen angle closure glaucoma and exacerbate pre-existing CNS depression. For choice B, hypertension and diabetes are not contraindications for alprazolam. Choice C, asthma and allergies, are not direct contraindications for alprazolam. Choice D is incorrect as alprazolam does have contraindications.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because benzodiazepines are primarily indicated for anxiety, seizure disorders, and insomnia due to their anxiolytic, anticonvulsant, and sedative-hypnotic properties. Choice B (depression and bipolar disorder) is incorrect as benzodiazepines are not first-line treatments for these conditions and may even worsen symptoms. Choice C (schizophrenia and psychosis) is also incorrect as benzodiazepines are not recommended for these conditions and may exacerbate psychotic symptoms. Choice D (None of the above) is incorrect as benzodiazepines do have specific indications, as stated in option A.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A first-generation antipsychotic. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is classified as a first-generation antipsychotic due to its primary use in treating psychotic disorders such as schizophrenia. It works by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, helping to alleviate symptoms of psychosis. Choice B is incorrect because chlorpromazine is not primarily used as an antidepressant. Choice C is incorrect because it is not an antianxiety medication; it is not typically used to treat anxiety disorders. Choice D is incorrect because chlorpromazine is not an anticonvulsant; it is not used to control seizures.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bipolar disorder. Lithium is commonly used as a mood stabilizer for treating bipolar disorder due to its ability to reduce manic episodes and prevent relapses. It is not typically used for depression, anxiety, or schizophrenia, as there are other medications more effective for these conditions. In summary, lithium is specifically indicated for bipolar disorder, making it the correct choice among the options provided.