ATI RN
Physical Examination and Health Assessment 9th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is responsible for the inspiratory splitting of S ?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Inspiratory splitting of S occurs due to the normal physiological delay in the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves during inspiration. During inspiration, the negative intrathoracic pressure leads to increased venous return to the right side of the heart, causing a slight delay in the closure of the pulmonic valve. This results in the aortic valve closing first, followed by the closure of the pulmonic valve, leading to the splitting of S during inspiration.
Question 2 of 9
He is afebrile. His cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are normal. Visualization of the anus shows no erythema, masses, or inflammation. Digital rectal examination elicits an irregular, firm mass on the posterior side of the rectum. After you remove your finger you notice frank blood on your glove. What anal or rectal disorder is this patient most likely to have?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient in this scenario presents with symptoms suggestive of an anorectal disorder. The presence of an irregular, firm mass on the posterior side of the rectum, along with frank blood seen on the glove after a digital rectal examination, raises suspicion for an underlying anorectal cancer. Anorectal cancer can present with symptoms such as rectal bleeding, changes in bowel habits, palpable masses, and weight loss. In this case, the findings of an irregular mass and rectal bleeding are concerning for a malignant process such as anorectal cancer. Further evaluation with imaging studies and biopsy would be warranted for confirmation and to guide appropriate management.
Question 3 of 9
In measuring the jugular venous pressure (JVP), which of the following is important?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: It is crucial to keep the patient's torso at a 45-degree angle when measuring the jugular venous pressure (JVP). This position allows the internal jugular vein to partially collapse, ensuring accurate observation of the pulsations. Keeping the patient at a 45-degree angle provides a standardized position for JVP measurement and helps avoid errors in assessment.
Question 4 of 9
The following information is best placed in which category? "The patient had a stent placed in the left anterior descending artery (LAD) in "
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The information provided - "The patient had a stent placed in the left anterior descending artery (LAD)" - is related to a medical procedure, specifically a surgical intervention involving the placement of a stent in a coronary artery. This information falls under the category of surgeries because it describes a surgical treatment to address a cardiovascular issue. It does not pertain to adult illnesses, obstetrics/gynecology, or psychiatric conditions, making option B the most appropriate category for this information.
Question 5 of 9
Suzanne is a 20-year-old college student who complains of chest pain. This is intermittent and is located to the left of her sternum. There are no associated symptoms. On examination, you hear a short, high-pitched sound in systole, followed by a murmur which increases in intensity until S . This is heard best over the apex. When she squats, this noise moves later in systole along with the murmur. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is consistent with mitral valve prolapse (MVP). MVP is characterized by the improper closure of the mitral valve leaflets during systole, leading to the prolapse of one or both leaflets into the left atrium. The classic auscultatory findings in MVP include a mid-systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur. The click is the result of sudden tensing of the chordae tendineae as the mitral valve prolapses, and the murmur occurs as blood leaks backward (mitral regurgitation) due to imperfect valve closure.
Question 6 of 9
Her blood pressure and pulse are unremarkable. Her head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat examinations are unremarkable except for edema of the nasal turbinates. On auscultation she has decreased air movement, and coarse crackles are heard over the left lower lobe. There is dullness on percussion, increased fremitus during palpation, and egophony and whispered pectoriloquy on auscultation. What disorder of the thorax or lung best describes her symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient's symptoms point towards pneumonia. Pneumonia is characterized by infection and inflammation in the lung tissue, leading to symptoms such as decreased air movement, crackles on auscultation, dullness on percussion, increased fremitus on palpation, and abnormal breath sounds like egophony and whispered pectoriloquy. These findings are consistent with consolidation of the lung, which occurs in pneumonia as a result of fluid, inflammatory cells, and tissue debris filling the alveoli. The presence of nasal turbinates edema indicates a possible upper respiratory tract infection that may have preceded the development of pneumonia. Spontaneous pneumothorax would typically present with sudden-onset chest pain and dyspnea but would not typically cause findings of lung consolidation. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and asthma are characterized by different patterns of lung damage and symptoms, such as chronic inflammation, airflow obstruction, and hyper
Question 7 of 9
A 28-year-old musician comes to your clinic, complaining of a "spot" on his penis. He states his partner noticed it 2 days ago and it hasn't gone away. He says it doesn't hurt. He has had no burning with urination and no pain during intercourse. He has had several partners in the last year and uses condoms occasionally. His past medical history consists of nongonococcal urethritis from Chlamydia and prostatitis. He denies any surgeries. He smokes two packs of cigarettes a day, drinks a case of beer a week, and smokes marijuana and occasionally crack. He has injected IV drugs before but not in the last few years. He is single and currently unemployed. His mother has rheumatoid arthritis and he doesn't know anything about his father. On examination you see a young man appearing deconditioned but pleasant. His vital signs are unremarkable. On visualization of his penis there is a 6-mm red, oval ulcer with an indurated base just proximal to the corona. There is no prepuce because of neonatal circumcision. On palpation the ulcer is nontender. In the inguinal region there is nontender lymphadenopathy. What disorder of the penis is most likely the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presentation described in the scenario is consistent with a syphilitic chancre, which is the primary lesion of syphilis. Syphilitic chancres are painless, indurated ulcers that occur at the site of initial infection with Treponema pallidum. These chancres are typically 0.5-2 cm in size, have a clean base, and are often accompanied by regional lymphadenopathy. The red oval ulcer with an indurated base in this patient, along with the absence of pain and presence of lymphadenopathy, is consistent with a syphilitic chancre.
Question 8 of 9
You are performing a routine check-up on an 81-year-old retired cotton farmer in the vascular surgery clinic. You note that he has a history of chronic arterial insufficiency. Which of the following physical examination findings in the lower extremities would be expected with this disease?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chronic arterial insufficiency results in poor blood flow to the lower extremities. This leads to inadequate oxygen and nutrient supply to the tissues, causing damage and changes in the skin. A common physical examination finding in chronic arterial insufficiency is thin, shiny, atrophic skin. The skin may appear pale, cool to the touch, and may have decreased hair growth. It is important to note that other findings such as diminished or absent pulses and reduced temperatures may also be present with chronic arterial insufficiency.
Question 9 of 9
A 67-year-old lawyer comes to your clinic for an annual examination. He denies any history of eye trauma. He denies any visual changes. You inspect his eyes and find a triangular thickening of the bulbar conjunctiva across the outer surface of the cornea. He has a normal pupillary reaction to light and accommodation. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The described findings of a triangular thickening of the bulbar conjunctiva across the outer surface of the cornea are characteristic of a pterygium. A pterygium is a benign growth of conjunctival tissue that extends onto the cornea. It is often associated with chronic exposure to ultraviolet light and typically occurs on the nasal side of the eye. Pterygiums are usually asymptomatic but can cause irritation, redness, and foreign body sensation in some cases. Surgical removal may be considered if the pterygium causes significant symptoms or affects vision.