ATI RN
Pediatric Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is normally the earliest age at which an infant begins teething with eruption of lower central incisors?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Teething is an important developmental milestone in infants, and understanding the typical timeline for tooth eruption is crucial for pediatric nursing practice. The correct answer to the question is B) 6 months. At around 6 months of age, infants typically begin teething with the eruption of their lower central incisors. This is considered normal in the developmental sequence of tooth eruption in infants. The eruption of the lower central incisors marks the beginning of the teething process, which can cause discomfort and irritability in infants. Option A) 4 months is too early for the eruption of lower central incisors in most infants. While some infants may start teething around 4 months, it is not the typical age for the eruption of these teeth. Option C) 8 months is slightly later than the average age for the eruption of lower central incisors. By 8 months, most infants would have already started teething and may have more teeth than just the lower central incisors. Option D) 12 months is too late for the eruption of the lower central incisors. By 12 months, most infants would have several teeth already erupted, including upper and lower incisors, and possibly even molars. Understanding the typical age range for teething and tooth eruption in infants is essential for pediatric nurses to provide appropriate anticipatory guidance to parents and caregivers. By knowing when to expect teething to begin, nurses can educate families on how to alleviate teething discomfort and promote good oral hygiene practices early on.
Question 2 of 5
Alcohol acts primarily as a CNS depressant. It produces all the following EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of pediatric nursing practice, it is crucial to understand the effects of alcohol on the central nervous system (CNS) to provide safe and effective care to pediatric patients. Alcohol is a CNS depressant, meaning it slows down brain activity. This is why the correct answer, D) hyperthermia, is the exception among the options provided. Alcohol consumption can lead to impaired judgment, decreased inhibitions, and relaxation, which can result in euphoria (option A). It can also affect cognitive functions, including short-term memory, leading to impaired short-term memory (option B). Furthermore, alcohol can interfere with the body's ability to regulate temperature, potentially causing hypothermia rather than hyperthermia (option D). Educationally, understanding the effects of alcohol on the CNS in pediatric patients is crucial for nurses to recognize signs of alcohol intoxication or overdose. By knowing that alcohol primarily acts as a CNS depressant and its effects on various bodily functions, nurses can provide appropriate care, monitor for complications, and educate patients and families on the risks associated with alcohol consumption.
Question 3 of 5
Potential adverse effects of Depo-provera include
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this question about potential adverse effects of Depo-provera, the correct answer is D) weight gain. Depo-provera is a hormonal contraceptive injection containing medroxyprogesterone acetate, which can lead to weight gain as a common side effect. Option A) heavy menstrual bleeding is unlikely as Depo-provera typically causes decreased menstrual bleeding or even amenorrhea. Option B) dysmenorrhea is also unlikely as Depo-provera often reduces menstrual pain. Option C) acne is not a common side effect of Depo-provera. Educationally, understanding the potential side effects of medications like Depo-provera is crucial for healthcare providers, especially those working in pediatrics. By knowing these side effects, nurses can educate patients and their families, monitor for adverse reactions, and provide appropriate care and support. It is essential to stay informed about medication effects to ensure safe and effective pediatric nursing practice.
Question 4 of 5
A 32-week preterm baby on mechanical ventilation, recovering from RDS, has a satisfactory blood gas, and ventilatory settings are being reduced for weaning. What is the most valuable indicator that the baby is ready for extubation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) fraction of inspired O2 0.55. In a preterm baby recovering from RDS on mechanical ventilation, a decreasing need for supplemental oxygen indicates improved lung function and gas exchange. A fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2) of 0.55 is relatively low and suggests that the baby's lungs are able to adequately oxygenate the blood on their own. This is a key indicator that the baby may be ready for extubation. Option A) frequency of respiration 35 is not the most valuable indicator for extubation readiness. While respiratory rate is important, it alone does not provide enough information about the baby's respiratory status and ability to maintain adequate oxygenation. Option C) peak expiratory end pressure 6 and D) inspiratory pressure 8 are related to ventilator settings but do not directly indicate the baby's readiness for extubation. These parameters are more about the support provided by the ventilator rather than the baby's ability to breathe independently. In the context of pediatric nursing, understanding the significance of various ventilator parameters and blood gas values is crucial for making decisions about respiratory care for preterm infants. Monitoring trends in these parameters helps nurses and healthcare providers assess the baby's progress and determine the appropriate time for interventions like weaning off mechanical ventilation.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following is NOT a potential complication of neonatal jaundice?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding neonatal jaundice and its potential complications is crucial for providing safe and effective care to newborns. The correct answer, option D - cardiomyopathy, is not a potential complication of neonatal jaundice. Neonatal jaundice is primarily due to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood, which can lead to conditions such as kernicterus, deafness, and cerebral palsy, but not cardiomyopathy. Kernicterus is a severe neurological complication of untreated jaundice, causing brain damage. Deafness can result from bilirubin toxicity affecting the auditory nerve. Cerebral palsy may occur due to kernicterus-induced brain injury. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of recognizing potential complications of neonatal jaundice to facilitate early intervention and prevent long-term consequences. Nurses caring for newborns must be vigilant in assessing jaundice levels and monitoring for signs of complications to ensure optimal outcomes for infants.