ATI RN
Immune System Quiz Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is included in the humoral immune response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Production of antigen-specific immunoglobulins. In the humoral immune response, B lymphocytes produce antibodies (immunoglobulins) that specifically target and neutralize antigens. This process is crucial in defending the body against pathogens. Option A) Surveillance for malignant cell changes is more related to the role of the immune system in cancer surveillance, not specifically the humoral immune response. Option C) Direct attack of antigens by activated B lymphocytes is more characteristic of the cell-mediated immune response, where T lymphocytes directly attack infected cells. Option D) Releasing cytokines responsible for destruction of antigens is a function of both B and T cells, but the primary role of B cells in the humoral response is antibody production. Understanding the components and functions of the immune system is essential in pharmacology as it helps in comprehending how drugs interact with the immune system to treat various diseases. Knowing the specifics of the humoral immune response is particularly important when studying vaccines, immunotherapy, and autoimmune disorders.
Question 2 of 5
The patient is experiencing fibrosis and glomerulopathy a year after a kidney transplant. Which type of rejection is occurring?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Chronic rejection. Chronic rejection is a type of rejection that occurs months to years after a transplant and is characterized by a slow and progressive decline in organ function. In the case of the patient experiencing fibrosis and glomerulopathy a year after a kidney transplant, these are indicative of chronic rejection. Acute rejection (option A) typically occurs within the first few weeks to months after a transplant and presents with rapid onset of symptoms. Hyperacute rejection (option D) occurs almost immediately after transplantation due to pre-existing antibodies against the donor organ. Delayed rejection (option C) is not a recognized type of rejection in transplant medicine. Educationally, understanding the different types of rejection post-transplant is crucial for healthcare professionals involved in transplant care. Recognizing the signs and symptoms of each type of rejection allows for early intervention and management to potentially prolong the lifespan of the transplanted organ and improve patient outcomes. It also underscores the importance of close monitoring of transplant patients to detect rejection early.
Question 3 of 5
In each of the following situations identify which option has the highest risk for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) transmission?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of HIV transmission, the correct option is C: First 2 to 6 months of infection OR 1 year after infection. This option poses the highest risk because during the early stages of HIV infection (acute phase), the viral load in the body is significantly high, making it easier to transmit the virus to others through various routes like sexual intercourse or sharing needles. Option A is less likely to pose the highest risk because transmission can occur to both men and women during sexual intercourse regardless of gender. Option B is also less risky as both hollow-bore needles used for vascular access and IM injections can transmit HIV if contaminated. Option D is less risky compared to option C because perinatal transmission from HIV-infected mothers who are not on antiretroviral therapy poses a higher risk due to increased viral load and lack of preventive measures compared to mothers on antiretroviral therapy. Understanding these scenarios is crucial in pharmacology to emphasize the importance of early detection, treatment, and prevention strategies in reducing HIV transmission risks at different stages of infection. It highlights the significance of educating individuals on safe practices to minimize the spread of HIV.
Question 4 of 5
One of the most significant factors in determining when to start antiretroviral therapy in a patient with HIV infection is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of HIV infection, the most significant factor in determining when to start antiretroviral therapy is the patient's readiness to commit to a complex, lifelong, uncomfortable drug regimen (Option C). This is because adherence to the medication schedule is crucial for the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy in suppressing the HIV virus and preventing progression to AIDS. Patients who are not ready to commit to this regimen may struggle with adherence, leading to treatment failure, drug resistance, and disease progression. Option A is incorrect because the levels of HIV antibodies do not determine the timing to start antiretroviral therapy. Option B is incorrect because once a patient is diagnosed with HIV infection, the focus shifts to when to initiate treatment rather than confirming the infection. Option D is incorrect because while having a support system is beneficial, it is not the most significant factor in determining the timing of antiretroviral therapy initiation. Educationally, understanding the importance of patient readiness in initiating antiretroviral therapy emphasizes the critical role of patient engagement and adherence in the successful management of HIV infection. It highlights the need for healthcare providers to assess patient readiness, provide education and support, and collaborate with patients to optimize treatment outcomes.
Question 5 of 5
Which mutated tumor suppressor gene is most likely to contribute to many types of cancer, including bladder, breast, colorectal, and lung?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology, understanding the role of tumor suppressor genes in cancer development is crucial. In this question, the correct answer is A) p53. The p53 gene is known as the "guardian of the genome" because it plays a critical role in preventing cancer by regulating cell division and promoting cell death when necessary. Mutations in the p53 gene can lead to uncontrolled cell growth and are associated with various types of cancer, including bladder, breast, colorectal, and lung cancers. Option B) APC is a tumor suppressor gene commonly associated with colorectal cancer, particularly in cases of familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Mutations in the APC gene predispose individuals to the development of numerous polyps in the colon, increasing the risk of cancer. Options C) BRCA1 and D) BRCA2 are known as breast cancer susceptibility genes. Mutations in these genes significantly increase the risk of developing breast and ovarian cancers, especially in individuals with a family history of these cancers. While BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations are not typically associated with the types of cancers listed in the question (bladder, colorectal, lung), they are important in the context of hereditary breast and ovarian cancer syndrome. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding specific tumor suppressor genes and their implications in different types of cancer. It reinforces the significance of genetic factors in cancer development and underscores the diverse roles of various genes in maintaining cellular homeostasis. Understanding these concepts is vital for pharmacology students to comprehend the molecular basis of cancer and design targeted therapies that can exploit these genetic vulnerabilities.