ATI RN
Review of Systems Neurological Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is different when a lesion occurs in a lower motor neuron compared to in an upper motor neuron?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In understanding the differences between lesions in lower motor neurons (LMN) and upper motor neurons (UMN), it is crucial to grasp their distinct effects on neurological function. Option A, "Causes hyporeflexia and flaccidity," is the correct answer. When a lesion occurs in an LMN, it leads to hyporeflexia (reduced reflexes) and flaccidity (loss of muscle tone) due to the disruption of signals from the LMN to the muscles. This results in weakness and muscle atrophy in the affected area. Conversely, lesions in UMN, as seen in options B, C, and D, have different implications. Option B is incorrect because UMN lesions affect motor control of both upper and lower body, not just the lower body. Option C is incorrect because UMN lesions arise in structures above the spinal cord, including the brain's cortex and brainstem, not specifically above the spinal cord. Option D is incorrect as UMN lesions do not interfere with reflex arcs in the spinal cord; instead, they disrupt voluntary motor functions. Educationally, understanding the distinction between LMN and UMN lesions is vital in clinical practice. Recognizing the specific characteristics of each type of lesion aids healthcare professionals in localizing the injury and determining appropriate treatment strategies. This knowledge is fundamental for diagnosing conditions like spinal cord injuries, strokes, and neurodegenerative diseases accurately.
Question 2 of 5
The patient's spinal cord injury is at T4. What is the highest-level goal of rehabilitation that is realistic for this patient to have?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) Be independent in self-care and wheelchair use. For a patient with a spinal cord injury at T4, the highest-level goal of rehabilitation that is realistic is to achieve independence in self-care and wheelchair use. This is because a T4 injury typically results in paraplegia, affecting the trunk and lower extremities. While options A, B, and D involve some form of ambulation, they are not realistic goals for a patient with a T4 injury. Option A, indoor mobility in a manual wheelchair, may be achievable but does not encompass the full range of functional independence needed for daily living. Option B, ambulating with crutches and leg braces, is not feasible due to the level of the injury affecting the lower extremities. Option D, completely independent ambulation with short leg braces and canes, is also not achievable given the location of the spinal cord injury. In an educational context, understanding the level and implications of a spinal cord injury is crucial in setting appropriate rehabilitation goals. It is important for healthcare professionals to tailor rehabilitation plans to the individual's specific injury level to maximize functional independence and quality of life.
Question 3 of 5
The patient is told by the health care provider that the size of the patient's muscle has decreased. How should the nurse document this occurrence?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Atrophy. Atrophy refers to the decrease in size of a muscle due to various reasons like lack of use, nerve damage, or malnutrition. It is crucial for nurses to accurately document changes in a patient's condition to ensure effective communication within the healthcare team and provide appropriate care. Option A) Hyaline is incorrect because hyaline refers to a type of cartilage, not muscle size changes. Option C) Isometric is incorrect as it refers to a type of muscle contraction where the length of the muscle remains the same, not a decrease in muscle size. Option D) Hypertrophy is also incorrect as it refers to an increase in muscle size, opposite to what is described in the question. Educationally, understanding these terms is essential for healthcare professionals, especially nurses, as it impacts their ability to assess, document, and communicate changes in a patient's condition accurately. Recognizing and documenting muscle atrophy can help in determining the underlying cause, developing appropriate treatment plans, and monitoring the effectiveness of interventions over time.
Question 4 of 5
The patient has a burning, sharp pain on the sole of the foot, especially in the morning. The nurse knows that this describes what common musculoskeletal problem?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Plantar fasciitis. Plantar fasciitis is a common musculoskeletal problem characterized by a burning, sharp pain on the sole of the foot, especially in the morning. This condition typically results from inflammation of the plantar fascia, a thick band of tissue that connects the heel bone to the toes. Option A) Pes planus refers to flat feet and is not typically associated with the described symptoms. Option B) Tenosynovitis is inflammation of the tendon sheath and presents with different symptoms such as swelling, pain, and difficulty moving the affected joint. Option D) Muscle atrophy is the wasting or loss of muscle tissue and is not directly related to the symptoms described in the question. Educationally, understanding common musculoskeletal problems like plantar fasciitis is essential for healthcare providers, especially nurses, as they play a crucial role in identifying, managing, and educating patients about these conditions. Recognizing the specific symptoms associated with different musculoskeletal issues enables appropriate interventions and timely referrals to optimize patient outcomes.
Question 5 of 5
A diagnosis of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm has been made in a patient with manifestations of a stroke. The nurse anticipates which treatment option that would be considered for the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the case of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm with stroke symptoms, the correct treatment option that the nurse would anticipate is surgical clipping of the aneurysm (Option B). This intervention involves surgically closing off the aneurysm to prevent further bleeding and potential complications. Surgical clipping is the preferred treatment for a ruptured cerebral aneurysm as it directly addresses the source of bleeding, reducing the risk of re-rupture and allowing for better long-term outcomes. This procedure is often performed emergently to minimize the chances of neurological deficits and mortality associated with aneurysm rupture. The other options are not the first-line treatments for a ruptured cerebral aneurysm: A) Hyperventilation therapy is used to lower intracranial pressure in certain neurological conditions but is not the primary treatment for a ruptured aneurysm. C) Administration of hyperosmotic agents may be used to reduce cerebral edema, but it does not directly treat the aneurysm itself. D) Thrombolytic therapy is used for ischemic strokes caused by blood clots, not for ruptured aneurysms. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind the treatment of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm is crucial for nurses caring for patients with neurological conditions. It is essential for nurses to recognize the urgency of surgical intervention in such cases to provide timely and appropriate care, potentially saving lives and preventing further complications.