ATI RN
Quizlet Pharmacology ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is an expected outcome for Lithium
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lithium is commonly used to treat bipolar disorder, where it is effective in reducing the frequency and severity of acute manic episodes. By stabilizing mood, lithium helps in preventing or decreasing the occurrence of manic episodes, which are characterized by elevated, irritable moods, increased energy, and impulsivity. However, it is important to note that lithium does not typically have direct effects on reducing the risk of myocardial infarction, GI ulcers, or respiratory distress.
Question 2 of 5
Which drug is the antidote of Alprazolam?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Flumazenil is the specific antidote for Alprazolam, which is a benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic drug. Flumazenil works by competitively inhibiting the actions of benzodiazepines at the benzodiazepine receptor site on the gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor complex. It effectively reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Alprazolam, making it the appropriate antidote in cases of benzodiazepine overdose or toxicity. The other options provided (Physostigmine, Protamine sulfate, and Acetylcysteine) are unrelated to Alprazolam and are not indicated as antidotes for this specific drug.
Question 3 of 5
While a patient is receiving antilipemic therapy, the nurse knows to monitor the patient closely for the development of which problem?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Antilipemic therapy is used to lower cholesterol levels in the blood. This type of therapy often places a strain on the liver as it metabolizes and processes the cholesterol-lowering medications. Therefore, patients receiving antilipemic therapy are at an increased risk of developing liver dysfunction. The nurse should monitor the patient closely for signs and symptoms of liver dysfunction, such as jaundice, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and changes in liver function tests. Early detection and intervention can help prevent serious complications associated with liver dysfunction.
Question 4 of 5
A client is prescribed propranolol (Inderal) for migraines. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Propranolol, a beta-blocker, prevents migraines but requires consistent use'stopping if migraines cease risks rebound, showing a teaching gap. Pulse checking monitors bradycardia. Tiredness and orthostasis are expected. Abrupt cessation can worsen migraines, critical in prophylaxis where steady-state matters, making B the statement needing correction.
Question 5 of 5
Lorazepam can be safely used as a preanesthetic medication in a patient undergoing liver transplantation without fear of excessive CNS depression because the drug is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used as a preanesthetic medication due to its anxiolytic and sedative properties. In patients undergoing liver transplantation, where hepatic function is compromised, drugs that rely on liver metabolism could accumulate and cause excessive central nervous system depression. Lorazepam's key advantage lies in its pharmacokinetic profile: it undergoes glucuronidation, a conjugation process that occurs outside the liver, primarily in the kidneys. This extrahepatic metabolism ensures that its clearance is less affected by liver dysfunction, reducing the risk of prolonged or excessive sedation. Unlike other benzodiazepines that depend heavily on hepatic cytochrome P450 enzymes, lorazepam's metabolism is more predictable in such patients, making it a safer choice. Excretion in unchanged form or secretion into the GI tract does not apply, and while it is anxiolytic, it does have CNS depressant effects, ruling out other options. Naloxone reverses opioids, not benzodiazepines.