ATI RN
Oxygenation NCLEX Questions with Rationale Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is an atomic number?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) The number of protons in an atom. The atomic number is a fundamental property of an element and is equal to the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom. This number uniquely identifies each element on the periodic table. For example, the atomic number of oxygen is 8, indicating that an oxygen atom has 8 protons. Option B) The number of neutrons in an atom is incorrect because the number of neutrons can vary for a given element, resulting in different isotopes of that element. Option C) The number of electrons in an atom is incorrect because the number of electrons can also vary, depending on the atom's charge and its interaction with other atoms in chemical reactions. Option D) The total mass of an atom is incorrect because the mass of an atom is determined by the sum of its protons and neutrons, not just the protons alone. Educationally, understanding the concept of atomic number is crucial in chemistry and physics as it forms the basis for the organization of the periodic table and helps in predicting an element's chemical properties. Knowing the atomic number of an element allows us to determine its place in the periodic table and understand its characteristic behavior in chemical reactions.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse assesses a client who had a myocardial infarction and has a blood pressure of 88/58 mm Hg. Which additional assessment finding would the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of a client post-myocardial infarction with a blood pressure of 88/58 mm Hg, a heart rate of 120 beats/min (Option A) would be the expected additional assessment finding. This is because the low blood pressure indicates decreased perfusion, potentially leading to cardiogenic shock. In response, the body compensates by increasing the heart rate to improve cardiac output and maintain perfusion to vital organs. Option B, cool clammy skin, is less likely in this scenario as it is typically associated with hypoperfusion and shock, which would manifest as cold, clammy skin due to vasoconstriction. Option C, warm dry skin, is unlikely as it is not a typical finding in the context of shock. Option D, a respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min, is less likely to be the immediate compensatory response to low blood pressure in this situation. Educationally, understanding the physiological responses to shock post-myocardial infarction is crucial for nurses to provide timely and appropriate care. Recognizing the compensatory mechanisms like tachycardia can guide appropriate interventions and prevent further deterioration in the client's condition. This knowledge helps nurses prioritize assessments and interventions to optimize patient outcomes in critical situations.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is explaining how to assess edema to the nursing students working on the antepartum unit. Which score indicates edema of lower extremities, face, hands, and sacral area?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is option D. An edema score of +3 indicates severe pitting edema involving both lower extremities, face, hands, and sacral area. This score signifies significant fluid retention and accumulation in various parts of the body, which is crucial to recognize in antepartum care. Option A, B, and C are incorrect as they are placeholders or errors in the question. These choices do not provide any meaningful information to help assess edema accurately. When teaching nursing students about assessing edema, it is critical to emphasize the importance of recognizing different degrees of edema as they can indicate various health conditions and guide appropriate interventions. Understanding edema scoring is vital in antepartum care as pregnant individuals are at increased risk of developing edema due to hormonal changes and increased fluid retention. Recognizing the severity of edema helps nurses monitor their patients closely for complications such as preeclampsia. By explaining the significance of each edema score, nursing students can develop their assessment skills and provide optimal care to antepartum patients.
Question 4 of 5
A client admitted with smoke inhalation injuries develops signs and symptoms of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The nurse anticipates the healthcare provider will prescribe which course of action with regard to oxygenation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the case of a client developing signs of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) due to smoke inhalation injuries, the correct course of action is mechanical ventilation (Option B). ARDS is characterized by severe lung injury leading to significant oxygenation problems. Mechanical ventilation is essential in this situation to provide adequate oxygenation and support the compromised respiratory function. Option A, oxygen via a nasal cannula, is not sufficient to address the severity of the oxygenation issue in ARDS. Similarly, option C, oxygen via a face mask, may not provide the required oxygenation support for a client with ARDS. Option D, oxygen via a Venturi mask, also may not deliver the precise oxygen concentration needed in such a critical condition. From an educational perspective, understanding the pathophysiology of ARDS and the rationale behind the treatment options is crucial for nursing practice. Nurses need to recognize the severity of ARDS and the appropriate interventions, such as mechanical ventilation, to ensure optimal patient outcomes. This question highlights the importance of critical thinking and clinical decision-making skills in managing respiratory emergencies effectively.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which medication classification does the nurse anticipate administering?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In caring for a client with COPD, administering bronchodilators such as adrenergic stimulating drugs or anticholinergic agents (Option D) is crucial. These medications work by dilating the airways, reducing bronchospasm, and improving airflow in the lungs, which are essential in managing COPD symptoms like shortness of breath and wheezing. Option A (Antibiotics) is not the first-line treatment for COPD unless there is an exacerbation with signs of infection. Using antibiotics in the absence of infection can contribute to antibiotic resistance. Option B (NSAIDs) are not indicated for COPD management. While they have anti-inflammatory properties, they do not target the airway constriction seen in COPD. Option C (Oxygen therapy) is a standard treatment for COPD to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, in the context of medication administration, bronchodilators take precedence over oxygen therapy as they directly address airway obstruction. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind medication choices in COPD management is vital for nursing practice. Bronchodilators play a key role in improving the quality of life for COPD patients by relieving symptoms and reducing exacerbations. Nurses need to be knowledgeable about the appropriate pharmacological interventions to provide optimal care and support to individuals with COPD.