ATI RN
jarvis health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is an appropriate response by the nurse to a Native-American woman requesting a medicine woman's presence during fetal heart monitoring?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates cultural competence and respect for the patient's beliefs. It shows willingness to accommodate the patient's request, promoting trust and effective communication. Choice B is incorrect as it dismisses the patient's request and may lead to distrust. Choice C is incorrect as it disregards the patient's cultural beliefs and can be perceived as insensitive. Choice D is incorrect as it invalidates the patient's beliefs and can hinder the therapeutic relationship. Ultimately, choice A is the most appropriate response to promote patient-centered care and build a trusting relationship with the patient.
Question 2 of 9
What is the most effective intervention for a client with a history of respiratory distress?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer albuterol. Albuterol is a bronchodilator that helps open airways, making it effective in treating respiratory distress. It works quickly to relieve symptoms such as shortness of breath and wheezing. Corticosteroids (B) may be used in conjunction with albuterol for severe cases, but albuterol is the immediate intervention. Providing pain relief (C) is not the primary intervention for respiratory distress. Nebulizers (D) are a delivery method for medications like albuterol, but the key intervention is administering the medication itself.
Question 3 of 9
What is the most appropriate intervention for a client with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer anticoagulants. Anticoagulants are crucial in treating DVT as they prevent blood clots from getting larger and stop new clots from forming. They help reduce the risk of complications like pulmonary embolism. Administering analgesics (B) may help with pain but does not address the root cause. Diuretics (C) are used to treat conditions like fluid retention, not DVT. Applying a warm compress (D) can actually worsen DVT by promoting blood flow. Anticoagulants are the gold standard treatment for DVT.
Question 4 of 9
What are the goals of palliative care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Giving the client the best quality of life possible. Palliative care aims to improve quality of life for individuals facing serious illnesses through symptom management, emotional support, and enhancing overall well-being. It focuses on promoting comfort and relief from pain, rather than curing the illness. Choice B is also relevant as palliative care considers the holistic needs of the individual. Choices C and D are incorrect as palliative care is not restricted to end-of-life care only and involves supporting both the patient and their family throughout the illness journey.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is using a stethoscope to listen for bowel sounds. What should the nurse ensure before using the stethoscope?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Check the room temperature. This is important because extreme temperatures can affect the accuracy of bowel sound assessment. Cold temperatures can cause vasoconstriction, leading to decreased bowel sounds, while warm temperatures can lead to increased sounds due to increased blood flow. Choice A (Clean the stethoscope before use) is important for infection control but not directly related to ensuring accurate bowel sound assessment. Choice C (Place the stethoscope directly on the skin) is incorrect as bowel sounds are auscultated through clothing. Choice D (Use a hand sanitizer after use) is important for hand hygiene but not necessary before using the stethoscope for bowel sounds.
Question 6 of 9
What should a nurse do if they observe a client sitting alone and talking to the voices?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because asking the client to describe the voices can help the nurse assess the situation and understand the client's experience better. This can provide valuable information for the nurse to determine the appropriate intervention or treatment. Leaving the client alone (B) may not address the underlying issue and could potentially worsen the situation. Encouraging the client to talk about the voices (C) is helpful, but asking for a description first allows for a more systematic assessment. Telling the client there are no voices (D) is dismissive and denies the client's reality, which can be harmful and ineffective in providing appropriate care.
Question 7 of 9
Teaching a client with gonorrhea about reinfection prevention is an example of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. Teaching a client with gonorrhea about reinfection prevention falls under secondary prevention, which aims to detect and treat a disease early to prevent complications and further transmission. This intervention occurs after the client has already been diagnosed with gonorrhea, focusing on preventing reinfection and spreading the infection to others. A: Primary prevention focuses on preventing the disease from occurring in the first place, such as promoting safe sex practices to prevent gonorrhea infection. C: Tertiary prevention involves managing and preventing complications of a disease that has already occurred, which is not the case with teaching about reinfection prevention. D: Primary health care prevention is a broad term that encompasses various aspects of healthcare delivery, but it does not specifically address the prevention of reinfection in a client with gonorrhea.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with cirrhosis. The nurse should monitor for signs of which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Cirrhosis can impair the liver's ability to store glycogen and produce glucose. Step 2: Liver dysfunction can lead to hypoglycemia due to decreased glycogen stores and gluconeogenesis. Step 3: Monitoring for hypoglycemia is crucial as it can result in serious complications. Step 4: Hyperglycemia (B) is less likely in cirrhosis as the liver's ability to regulate blood sugar is impaired. Step 5: Hypokalemia (C) and hyperkalemia (D) are less directly related to cirrhosis and are not the primary concerns in this case.
Question 9 of 9
What is the most effective action when a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) develops hypoxemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. In ARDS, the primary issue is hypoxemia due to impaired gas exchange in the lungs. Administering oxygen helps to increase the oxygen levels in the blood, improving oxygenation to vital organs. Corticosteroids (B) are not indicated as they have not shown consistent benefit in ARDS treatment. Bronchodilators (C) are not effective as ARDS is not primarily a bronchoconstrictive disorder. Applying an ice pack to the chest (D) is not relevant and will not address the underlying hypoxemia. Administering oxygen is the most effective and essential intervention to correct hypoxemia in ARDS.