What is a typical parasomnia?

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Question 1 of 9

What is a typical parasomnia?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Sleep terrors are a classic example of parasomnias, which are abnormal behaviors during sleep. Cataplexy (A) is associated with narcolepsy, hypopnea (B) refers to shallow breathing, and sleep apnea (C) involves breathing interruptions.

Question 2 of 9

A patient is receiving discharge instructions after experiencing a stroke. Which instruction is most important for preventing another stroke?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Take prescribed antihypertensive medications regularly. This is the most important instruction for preventing another stroke because hypertension is a major risk factor for strokes. By controlling blood pressure with antihypertensive medications, the patient can significantly reduce the risk of another stroke. Engaging in physical therapy exercises (choice B) can be beneficial for overall recovery but is not as critical for stroke prevention as managing blood pressure. Following a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet (choice C) is important for heart health but not the most crucial for stroke prevention. Attending regular follow-up appointments (choice D) is essential for monitoring progress and adjusting treatment but does not directly prevent another stroke like managing hypertension does.

Question 3 of 9

A client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. The client's most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What action should the nurse anticipate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increase the heparin rate. A PTT of 25 seconds indicates that the client's blood is not adequately anticoagulated, as the therapeutic range for PTT is typically around 60-80 seconds for heparin therapy. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate increasing the heparin rate to achieve the desired anticoagulant effect and prevent further clot formation. Incorrect choices: A: Decreasing the heparin rate would further decrease the anticoagulant effect, potentially putting the client at risk for thrombus progression. C: No change to the heparin rate would not address the subtherapeutic PTT level and could lead to inadequate anticoagulation. D: Stopping heparin and starting warfarin is not appropriate at this time as warfarin takes time to reach therapeutic levels, whereas heparin provides immediate anticoagulation for acute situations like a pulmonary embolism.

Question 4 of 9

During a call to the on-call physician about a client who had a hysterectomy 2 days ago & has unrelieved pain from prescribed narcotic medication, which statement is part of the SBAR format for communication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it provides relevant information regarding the client's allergies to morphine and codeine, which is crucial for the physician to know when considering alternative pain medication options. This aligns with the "Background" component of the SBAR format, which includes pertinent patient history. Choice A is incorrect because it jumps to a solution without providing necessary background information. Choice C is irrelevant to the current situation as it does not address the client's pain management issue. Choice D is also incorrect as it only provides historical information about the type of hysterectomy performed, which is not directly related to the client's current pain management concern.

Question 5 of 9

A healthcare professional is assessing a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of this disease?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes. This is characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis due to the inflammatory nature of the disease. The prolonged morning stiffness is a hallmark feature, reflecting the systemic inflammation present in rheumatoid arthritis. This symptom is not typically seen in osteoarthritis, which rules out options A and B. Pain that worsens with activity is more indicative of osteoarthritis as opposed to rheumatoid arthritis, making option D incorrect.

Question 6 of 9

A client is hospitalized with a second episode of pulmonary embolism (PE). Recent genetic testing reveals the client has an alteration in the gene CYP2C19. What action by the nurse is best?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare preoperative teaching for an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter. In the context of a client with an alteration in the gene CYP2C19 and recurrent pulmonary embolism, the use of an IVC filter helps prevent blood clots from traveling to the lungs. This intervention is crucial in managing the risk of further pulmonary embolism. Teaching the client about the purpose, care, and potential complications of the IVC filter is essential for their understanding and cooperation in the treatment plan. Incorrect Choices: A: Instruct the client to eliminate all vitamin K from the diet. This choice is not relevant to the management of recurrent pulmonary embolism associated with a genetic alteration. C: Refer the client to a chronic illness support group. While support is important, it is not the immediate priority in this case of managing a recurrent PE. D: Teach the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush. This recommendation is not directly

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following would indicate that Mrs. Filbert understands what you have taught her about her condition?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Promptly seeking medication at the onset of symptoms reflects understanding of how to manage acute attacks effectively.

Question 8 of 9

What should the nurse do while dealing with older adults who lose the ability to hear at high-pitched ranges?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Lowering the voice pitch accommodates age-related hearing loss, improving communication clarity.

Question 9 of 9

The nurse knows that a patient taught sleep hygiene practices needs further instruction when he says

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alcohol disrupts sleep architecture, making it counterproductive for sleep hygiene. Getting up after 20 minutes (A) is a recommended practice, and exercising early (D) promotes better sleep.

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