What is a treatment option for patient who reported small, vascular lesions on his genitals that lasted between 10 and 20 days?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Acyclovir (Zovirax). The patient's symptoms of small, vascular lesions on the genitals lasting 10-20 days are indicative of a viral infection, likely herpes simplex virus. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication commonly used to treat herpes infections. It works by inhibiting the replication of the virus, reducing the duration and severity of symptoms. Test of cure (A) is not appropriate in this case as the diagnosis is already evident. Three injections of penicillin (B) are used for bacterial infections, not viral. One-time dose of azithromycin (C) is used for bacterial infections like chlamydia or gonorrhea, not viral lesions.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Treponema pallidum. This bacterium causes syphilis, a common sexually transmitted infection. Treponema pallidum is known for its transmission through sexual contact and can lead to serious health complications if left untreated. The other choices (A, B, D) are not typically associated with sexually transmitted infections and do not match the characteristics of a common STI like syphilis. Therefore, C is the correct answer based on its known transmission route and association with sexually transmitted bacterial infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypoglycemia. Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat diabetes by lowering blood sugar levels. When reviewing medical records, if a patient is scheduled for surgery and taking metformin, it's crucial to assess for the risk of hypoglycemia. Surgery can impact food intake and medication absorption, potentially leading to low blood sugar levels. This is important to prevent complications during surgery. Choice B: Hemorrhage is incorrect because metformin is not known to directly increase the risk of hemorrhage related to surgery. The main concern with metformin is hypoglycemia, not hemorrhage. Choices C and D were not provided, but the key point is to focus on the risk of hypoglycemia with metformin in a surgical setting.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Combination OC. Combination oral contraceptives (OC) containing estrogen are not recommended for breast-feeding mothers due to potential adverse effects on milk supply and composition. Progestin-only methods, such as Depo-Provera (choice A) or progestin-only OC (choice B), are safer options. Intrauterine devices (choice D) are also considered safe for breast-feeding mothers as they have minimal systemic absorption. Therefore, the inappropriate choice for this patient is Combination OC (choice C) due to the presence of estrogen which can affect breast milk quality and supply.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: C: The provider will include information about reporting fever and cough because PPIs can mask symptoms of underlying infections like pneumonia. Prompt reporting is crucial for proper evaluation and treatment. A: Incorrect. There is no established link between PPI use and gastric cancer risk. B: Incorrect. PPIs can be prescribed for short-term or long-term use based on individual needs. D: Incorrect. PPIs are not associated with high magnesium levels; rather, they may sometimes lead to low magnesium levels.