ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is a surgical procedure where a blood vessel is grafted to bypass a blocked coronary artery, improving blood flow to the heart muscle?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). This surgical procedure involves grafting a blood vessel to bypass a blocked coronary artery, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. It is used to treat severe coronary artery disease. Valve replacement (B) is a surgery to replace heart valves, not to bypass blocked arteries. Angioplasty (C) involves inserting a balloon to widen a narrowed artery, not bypassing it. Endarterectomy (D) is a procedure to remove plaque from an artery, not bypassing a blocked coronary artery.
Question 2 of 5
The client is on dobutamine. Adverse effects of Dobutrex (dobutamine) include the following: Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Dobutamine is a beta-1 adrenergic agonist, which increases heart rate. 2. Tachycardia is a common adverse effect due to increased heart rate. 3. Bradycardia is the opposite effect and not expected with dobutamine. 4. Heart failure is a condition that dobutamine is used to treat, not cause. 5. Respiratory distress is not a typical adverse effect of dobutamine. Summary: Choice C (Tachycardia) is correct because dobutamine increases heart rate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because dobutamine does not cause heart failure, bradycardia, or respiratory distress.
Question 3 of 5
The healthcare provider is monitoring a client receiving lidocaine IV. What side effect is the healthcare provider most concerned about?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Seizures. Lidocaine is a local anesthetic that can cause central nervous system toxicity, leading to seizures. This is the most concerning side effect because it can be life-threatening. Severe headache (A) is not typically associated with lidocaine toxicity. Nausea and vomiting (B) are common side effects but not the most concerning. Tremors (D) can occur but are not as serious as seizures in this context.
Question 4 of 5
The client on warfarin has an INR of 5.5. What is the priority nursing action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer vitamin K as an antidote. An INR of 5.5 indicates the client is at risk for bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation from warfarin. Administering vitamin K helps reverse the effects of warfarin and lowers the INR back to the therapeutic range. Holding the next dose of warfarin (B) is important but not the priority over administering the antidote. Increasing the dose of warfarin (C) would worsen the situation. Administering fresh frozen plasma (D) is not a standard treatment for high INR levels due to warfarin.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer a beta blocker to a client with hypertension. What is the priority assessment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Check the client's blood pressure. When administering a beta blocker to a client with hypertension, the priority assessment is to check the client's blood pressure. Beta blockers lower blood pressure, so monitoring it before administration helps ensure it is within the safe range. Checking the client's heart rate (choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Respiratory rate (choice C) and temperature (choice D) are not directly related to the administration of beta blockers for hypertension.